There is no difference. And the statement is accurate. The additional words are merely emphasis. The key word is function. Of course I realise that the Turning machine has to be functioning. That's why I said so. If PM were contending that there were any other necessary element required apart from the function of the Turing machine, then he's had endless opportunities to state as much.
[
Bolding mine] I have to take exception to this. The compared statements for which no difference is claimed here, as provided by RD from westprog's post, are:
1) PM's position is that the consciousness of the brain springs from its function as a Turing machine.
2) PM has consistently made the claim that consciousness springs
entirely from the function of the brain as a Turing Machine -
and nothing else
[Bolding original to RD]
I can accept 1) as a characterization of my own perspective, but not 2). I perceive, but can't know westprog's actual reasoning, that it comes from a misunderstanding of the nature of emergence. I have previously explained how emergent properties are in principle predictable variables, not some intrinsically new property that magically appears in system ensembles.
RD has been demanding a well defined distinction between the mechanistic models used to describe aspects of consciousness and how it differs from consciousness, so I'll provide the principles in terms of emergence and show how it is consistent with the definitions of Myriad and others. This also goes toward the limits of the Church-Turing thesis, and why such a thesis can be valid in all subsystems of a system when not valid in the system itself.
I'll use rogue waves as an example. At the level of individual water molecules you have linear translations through space, mean free path, wrt speed and density. They are simply bouncing off each other. In a standard linear wave, water is not even being transported with the wave, just bouncing back and forth between each other as the wave passes them. Normal waves are an effectively linear emergent phenomena.
Rogue waves are characterized not by a linear compression, but a nonlinear sum of a bunch of chaotic randomly interacting smaller waves. Now, in spite of the individual molecules still being characterized by linear spacial translations, we must model the nonlinearities and treat the emergent wavelets as new entities, and then model the interactions of these new emergent entities to produce a complete new nonlinear emergent entity, created from underlying emergent entities, called a rogue wave.
Now the Church-Turing thesis is limited to ‘explicitly stated rule’, like the collisional rules of the individual water molecules. Yet for the rogue wave we are dealing with a hierarchy of emergent properties, where emergent properties are interacting with emergent properties to produce new emergent properties. It is distinctly nonlinear, and requires input modeling that lacks explicit values as defined by the Church-Turing thesis. Yet foundationally they remain the product of explicit linear mechanistic molecular collisions.
So consider the definitions provided by Myriad and others, where the specific of any given calculation approach in our brains is modified, or evolves, in accordance with our past history and experience with similar such calculations. We may even make tactical changes in how we arrive at a calculation midstream, by noticing patterns during the process of that same calculation. This is a distinctly nonlinear approach to calculations, which don't 'directly' model well, or at all, in a Turing machine. Yet like the rogue wave, the foundational mechanics can remain an ensemble of Turing machines.
Thus there is nothing wrong with describing non-intelligent, non-conscious, linear mechanistic machines as 'operationa'l elements of consciousness. It simply isn't valid to accuse people, that speak of these operational elements as elements of consciousness, of claiming these elements are themselves conscious, period. It's a "Composition fallacy" to accuse people describing composition of a Composition fallacy, when the claimed fallacy was your own composition.
Does this qualify as a well defined distinction RD? Does anybody have any questions not made clear here?