WildCat
NWO Master Conspirator
- Joined
- Mar 23, 2003
- Messages
- 59,856
(citation needed)That's exactly what happened.
(citation needed)That's exactly what happened.
Depends how much they paid for the debt in the first place and how much they've been paid in interest payments, arrangement fees and management fees in the interim.
If the $850 debt only cost you, say, $300m in the first place then collecting $550m in the firesale looks like good business.
Of course the people who sold you $850m of debt for $300m in the first place took a huge loss but I guess they wanted out.
Or maybe it's just the owners thanking them for attempting to do a difficult and ultimately impossible job.
Baloney! If doesn't matter if they only paid a nickel for $850 million in debt - it still means the company borrowed $850 million and they still owe it all.
And the interest would be paid no matter who owned the debt.
And the management team gets paid for managing - it is not some element of "profit" for the investors.
Yes, it does - good for them if they make a profit. It's the reward for taking on the risk of dealing with intransigent unions with a business that has been poorly run for a decade or two.
Yes, they took a loss but, obviously, they thought they got a good deal (and maybe they did too). And since the company borrowed that money, it still owes it. All of it.
Corporate bonds are no different than a home mortgage that gets sold to a different investor - no matter what the new investor paid for the mortgage note, the mortgagee still owes the full amount they borrowed. It's exactly the way used car financing works too - the effective interest rate earned by the final note holder is irrelevant to the original car buyer.
Yes, but it depends how much you are in the hole for that debt.
A company owes $850 million. If I buy that debt from you for a nickel then you as the creditor who was previously owed $850 million give up all rights to that debt.
I collect the interest payable on that debt so at, say 5%, in the first year I collect $42.5 million, not a bad investment on my original investment.
Furthermore, when I buy that debt from the company, I add the amount I paid for the debt to the debt. I take out the nickel I paid for the debt and the company is now $850,000,000.05 in debt, and required to pay interest to me.
A more realistic example would be a company that's $500m in debt and I buy the debt for 50 cents on the dollar ($250m). From a headline point of view I have invested $250m in the company but I immediately transfer that $250m to the company's debt so the company is now $750m in debt and paying interest on that $750m to me.
Thing is, Hostess made basically nothing actually good, but they made stuff that was available, cheap, sweet, and almost good, and that was a winning hand for decades.
Correct, but just to run through an example:
Start:
The company is in debt $500m to the original creditors
The original creditors are owed $500m
I owe no money
The buy out
The original creditors accept $250m (50 cents on the dollar) to settle the debt
I borrow $250m to pay off the original creditors and buy the debt
The company now owes me $500m (because I bought the debt)
I owe the bank (or whoever I borrowed the money from) $250m
The debt transfer
I transfer my $250m debt to the company
The company now owes $750m, $500m to me and $250m to the bank
I owe nothing
So if it all goes horribly wrong, I have lost none of my own money and I owe nothing to the bank. In the meantime I collect the interest due on $500m.
So let me see if I've got this straight:
Home occupant owes $300,000.00 on their mortgage loan.
I borrow $150,000.00 from my bank to buy home occupant's mortgage loan from their bank.
I transfer my debt of $150,000.00 to the home occupant's mortgage loan.
Home occupant now owes $450,000.00 and they have to pay it back to me and my bank.
I live in the house with the home occupant and run the house. I also charge the home occupant additional fees for running the house.
If the home occupant can't afford to pay me and my bank I just take my stuff and leave and the home occupant sells the house at a loss. I then borrow another $150,000.00 from my bank and do this again at another house.
My bank loses most or all of the $150,000.00 I borrow but I'm sure they'll keep lending me $150,000.00 to buy mortgage loans and transfer my debt to the home occupant's mortgage loan and live in the house and run the house until they can't afford to pay us and have to sell the house at a loss.
Did I get this right?
This makes no sense as a sustainable business model for private equity. "If it all goes horribly wrong" the private equity firm will be okay but the bank is not going to get some or all of their $250m back. How many times is the bank going to keep lending $250m to vulture capitalists knowing that the vulture capitalists are just going to transfer the debt to a failing company then force it into bankruptcy? Why would a bank keep giving away $250m?
Did I get this right?
This makes no sense as a sustainable business model for private equity. "If it all goes horribly wrong" the private equity firm will be okay but the bank is not going to get some or all of their $250m back. How many times is the bank going to keep lending $250m to vulture capitalists knowing that the vulture capitalists are just going to transfer the debt to a failing company then force it into bankruptcy? Why would a bank keep giving away $250m?
The lender structures the new debt so is first in line when assets are liquidated so they typically get their money back and make money off interest payments in the meantime.
The other thing to remember is that while the debt load is high, it’s at, not above, the threshold for what the company can finance. If the company can increase its sales or decrease its costs it can eventually pay that debt down and survive. These companies typically struggle along until the next economic downturn at which point they don’t have enough income coming in to keep lenders happy and get liquidated.