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Evolution of Depression

There is no blood test for depression. Depression is quantified by surveying the patient and scoring his answers on a test. The score you get depends on the questions asked and the weight given to each.

Christine, I read the above as likening a blood test for another disease to the scoring answers on a test. If you didn't mean it that way, I can certainly see how someone could read it as such.

SSRIs are moderately effective. I never said they weren't.

Sure you did. Right here:

When I say that SSRIs are not all that effective, I mean above and beyond the placebo effect.

When someone says they are not effective, it is assumed as meaning beyond the placebo effect. That is what skeptigirl is commenting on.
 
Of course it's not enough. One-fifth to one third is not enough. It's something, but it's not enough.

Sure it is.

I was asked for a study, I gave a link to the survey most often cited as showing no effect greater than placebo for SSRIs.

I'm leaving. I'm here to learn and to share, not to be insult and be insulted by people who aren't even paying attention what I'm saying. Good luck, and I hope you find what you are looking for.

Further more, I have not once insulted you. And have paid crystal clear attention to what you said. I asked you for evidence and you couldn't produce anything beyond an abstract from an article that you can't read yourself. Doesn't seem very skepticy to me.
 
Maybe you should read this source a little more carefully. Nothing in here said SSRIs weren't effective nor that psychotherapy was as good.

From your citation:
No overall difference in efficacy between cognitive behaviour therapy and tricyclic antidepressants was found using individual patient data (i.e. mega-analysis) of a subgroup of outpatients with moderate to severe major depression from four randomized controlled trials but patient numbers were small (DeRubeis et al., 1999). Thase et al. (1997) in a mega-analysis of six studies found equal efficacy for combined drug–psychotherapy compared with psychotherapy in mild to moderately depressed patients but a poorer response to psychotherapy alone in moderate to severely depressed patients. Again, patient numbers were small and some treatments and combinations were not represented. Evidence is lacking about the efficacy of specific psychotherapies in severely ill hospitalized patients (Persons et al., 1996; Thase and Friedman, 1999); in these patients cognitive deficits may be expected to impair ability to engage with psychological treatment (Murphy et al., 1998)
Tricyclics are not SSRIs though a couple of them have SRI activity. Tricyclics are mostly Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors. The studies were small and only outpatients are referred to in this assessment of the available data.

From your citation:
Early or non-persistent improvement in depressive symptoms may be due to placebo response (IIb) Early abrupt improvement (before completion of 2 weeks treatment) is seen in patients on both placebo and antidepressant drug treatment and is less likely to be sustained than gradual improvement or later responses on drug treatment. This suggests that non-persistence of improvement or relapse in the first few weeks of treatment are due to loss of a placebo effect (Quitkin et al., 1984, 1987).
In other words, true drug response begins after 2 weeks of treatment and is sustained. If your patient improves rapidly but then relapses, the drugs were likely not working in the first place. This does not say SSRIs are only eliciting a placebo effect.


ChristineR said:
And here's a well-known, somewhat controversial, non-technical article which discusses a review of anti-depressants and how the authors interpreted the data to show the drugs weren't astonishingly effective. Psychology Today article
Fisher and Greenberg have written extensively on the psychiatric pharmaceutical industry and certainly has some good points worth considering. But their work has a declared bias, and isn't the bottom line on all psychiatric drug therapies.


ChristineR said:
Googling around I found tons of articles, but not one that really gives the summary I was looking for. But here's one called Clinical trials of antidepressant medications are giving meaningless results which will link you to a whole bunch of articles discussing how the data can be intepreted so that anti-depressants (especially SSRIs) can be considered to be no better than placebo. Most experts think this interpretation is going too far, but no one doubts that drug companies are interpreting the data too positively.
From your citation's abstract:
...Antidepressant treatment of depression in the under-18s has been thought to be justified because clinical trials show that it works so well in over-18s. But is that a reasonable assessment of the evidence?...
Here's a caution about expanding conclusions without verifying the applicability. How does that discount the study results on the population that was looked at? And the review that does claim antidepressants are only a little better than placebo is not available without a paid subscription. You can see from its abstract that it looked at the material provided the FDA for approval of particular drugs. This article did not look at the effectiveness of SSRIs in general. The next article cited in your citation looked at St John's Wort which has not had strong evidence supporting its effectiveness and again, isn't an SSRI, nor is it a particularly active drug in general. The other outcome which wasn't a goal of the study was the effect of sertraline which is an SSRI. The study concluded:
...the efficacy of sertraline was demonstrated on the secondary CGI-I measure, resulting on average in much improvement, hypericum had no efficacy on any measure. Although not designed to compare sertraline with hypericum, the study showed superiority of sertraline on the CGI-I. Responders who entered continuation treatment maintained their improvement equally in each treatment group.


ChristineR said:
There are two basic problems that I see. One is that the drugs have side effects, so that everyone knows if they are on a drug or a placebo, and this leads to "the amplified placebo effect"--a stronger placebo effect in people who have correctly guessed that they are on the drug. The other is what I mentioned above, that the drug companies are likely to count things like "sleeping more soundly" as an improvement when in fact the depressed person may simply consider it an unimportant side effect.
And here is the basic problem I see in your conclusions. You misunderstand what you are reading and expand your bias against psych drugs beyond what the literature you are reading actually supports.

There is good reason to prescribe medications with caution, to take meds with caution, to not over-interpret research results, to be aware of drug company bias and marketing techniques that seem to have less and less ethical limitations every day and to look at non-drug therapies when there is evidence they may be effective.

OTOH, scientific research into brain processes is beginning to reveal just what is going on in mental disorders and offer means of correcting the underlying basis of the disorders. There is no reason to treat brain dysfunction differently than we treat other organ disorders despite the fact that has been done extensively in the past. From being possessed by demons to be ruined by your mother's incompetence, the science of mental illness has had some historical hurdles to get over to reach new roots in evidence based medicine. SSRIs are one of the best understood pharmacological interventions in mental illness. Nothing offered in this thread supports the conclusion SSRIs merely have placebo effects.
 
That means that half of the effect of the medication wasn't actually due to the medication.

A 25-30% success rate for a medication isn't very impressive at all.

We also need to look more closely at why there's such a massive placebo effect.
Well here's an error in logic which gives us insight into why you misinterpret what you read.

It means that the medication didn't work in everyone. Well duh! Maybe everyone doesn't have the same underlying mechanism causing their symptoms.

I pointed this out to you before and you ignored it then as well.
 
Because journal articles, particularly on facts that were established a quarter-century ago, are not frequently put online in forms accessible to the public.

If you want studies, I need to go to academic journals. Twit.
You don't know how to access academic journals on the Net? And you want 25 year old studies to support your case? Who is the twit?

If there are articles one must pay for that are free at the library, you can at least find the abstract on the net. And quite often they are only charged when they are newly published. Archived articles then become available. Anything too old to be archived is likely too old to be relevant. Just which journals are you referring to that aren't available online?
 
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There are a couple of places to access some journal articles, or at least get fairly decent references.

These are Medlineplus: http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/depression.html

... and Medscape (which is a business, but the required registration of free!). Here are the results of what is available when seaching "depression".
http://search.medscape.com/uslclient/searchAll.do?queryText=depression

and its page dedicated to depression: Depression Resouce Center

http://search.medscape.com/uslclient/searchAll.do?queryText=depression
 
The following is bolded and italicized for clarity, not for emphasis.
Okay, this is pointless. I don't think I'm going to post on this thread any longer.....
I did not insult you either. I read what you posted. If it wasn't interpreted as you intended then just say what you did mean. You may wish to see why you have been misinterpreted so you can better clear the air.

CR: "I said absolutely nothing about the diagnosis of depression. I mentioned the quantified scaling of depression for the purpose of evaluating treatment."

This is what you said: "There is no blood test for depression. Depression is quantified by surveying the patient and scoring his answers on a test. The score you get depends on the questions asked and the weight given to each."

And while you prefaced it with, "Concerning the effectiveness of various treatments for depression:" you followed it with, "Cognitive therapists tend to ask questions about levels of irrational and destructive thoughts. Psychiatrists tend to ask questions about sleep disorders and aches and pains. Talk-therapy psychologists tend to ask questions about attitudes towards life and the future....The result is that all different kinds of doctors can claim that their treatments are the most effective and that all treatments can be claimed to be equally effective...."

CR: "Answers on a survey are what is used to quantify improvement. What has that got to do with the need for experience and training?

I already noted the diagnosis vs research outcome confusion in your posts. But to answer just the research outcome issue you bring up:

Using a survey to measure outcome in a study helps to remove observer bias when treatment comparisons are being made. When objective measures such as the survey in this case are developed to compare the effectiveness of treatments, the survey is also the subject of research into its validity as a measuring tool before being used. So you'd need to go back to the development of the survey to really support your claim it was invalid.


CR: "I didn't say that [I believe depression is subjective, there are no physical measures, and so on,]"

Isn't that what it means when you say there is no blood test?

CR:" Of course [a blood test] superior [to to that of a good diagnostician's observations] if you are trying to quantitatively compare different treatments. I said nothing about diagnosis."

Actually, lab measurements have their own inherent validity problems. Neither measure is better or worse overall. Both observation and lab tests depend on many other factors as to which is most valid.

CR: "I don't see any relevance to the issue at hand." [re my pain example]

The relevance is that reading a depression survey questionnaire, without any background into how it was developed or how it is interpreted may not reveal everything the questionnaire is designed to reveal.

You continue to oversimplify research questionnaires by this statement:


CR: "None of which is useful in comparing treatment efficacies unless you quantify it," [referring to all the things that go into assessing the symptoms of depression.]

What you are missing here is that the depression survey used to evaluate the treatments has to meet its own criteria for being valid as I already noted. If you do question the validity of the tools used in the studies you have to actually look at the tool, not just dismiss it out of hand based on what you think its limitations are.

CR: "...there is not a 100% correlation between depression and serotonin levels, so even if we had that test it would not be used to evaluate treatment.

Not so in oh so many ways. There is a correlation in serotonin levels at the neural synapse and depression. It wouldn't have to correlate 100% for the test to be useful. And, it wouldn't have to account for all cases of depression to be useful.

CR: "CR: "What examples?"

"Cognitive therapists tend to ask questions about levels of irrational and destructive thoughts. Psychiatrists tend to ask questions about sleep disorders and aches and pains. Talk-therapy psychologists tend to ask questions about attitudes towards life and the future....."are the examples I do not agree with. I do not agree that these particular therapists focus only on their own fields when treating patients. Which should also answer your next question as to what I was getting at.

CR: "Since I never said any such thing" that [One cannot conclude that because multiple treatments are equally effective those treatments are merely placebos.]

What you said was, "Clinical trials of antidepressant medications are giving meaningless results which will link you to a whole bunch of articles discussing how the data can be intepreted so that anti-depressants (especially SSRIs) can be considered to be no better than placebo."and, "The result is that all different kinds of doctors can claim that their treatments are the most effective and that all treatments can be claimed to be equally effective. Really there is no one most effective treatment for depression."

The overall impression I've gotten from these posts is that everything works equally so it's all placebo effect. Feel free to correct this mis-interpretation.

CR: "Psychologists are licensed. Unlicensed providers exist of course, but they cannot call themselves Psychologist...

Yes but not every counselor is licensed. In fact, anyone can call themselves a counselor. In addition, licenses are issued by state, not by the Federal government in this case so I'm not sure your blanket statement applies uniformly.

Cognitive therapist
Talk-therapy psychologists


I have not heard of licenses for these specific providers. I took it to mean you were describing any number of counselors.

Re the French and Freud, Freud is not valid evidence based psychiatry. I was noting that I wasn't speaking for the world's psychiatrists, but rather only US psychiatry practice.


CR: "SSRIs are moderately effective. I never said they weren't." and CR "When I say that SSRIs are not all that effective, I mean above and beyond the placebo effect."

CR: "Really there is no one most effective treatment for depression. Right now the SSRIs are in ascendence because they are cheap, safe, and fast, although not really all that effective."
So is an SSRI effective beyond placebo or not?

CR: Well, I count roughly ten incidences of you accusing me of saying things I never said, and five comments that are broadly true, but have no relevance to anything I said. There is obviously no point in my saying anything to you. Good luck on whatever it you are trying to do.

For someone to mis-interpret a post is hardly the same as "accusing" them of saying things that weren't said. I tried to be as specific as I could here since you don't agree with either my or Abbyas' replies. "Good luck", and "no point," are comments I expect from someone frustrated they haven't made their point. Maybe your points weren't correct. Maybe they were and you failed to communicate them effectively. Maybe it's a combination of the two. Either way, I mean no ill will toward you.
 
There are a couple of places to access some journal articles, or at least get fairly decent references.

These are Medlineplus: http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/depression.html

... and Medscape (which is a business, but the required registration of free!). Here are the results of what is available when seaching "depression".
http://search.medscape.com/uslclient/searchAll.do?queryText=depression

and its page dedicated to depression: Depression Resouce Center

http://search.medscape.com/uslclient/searchAll.do?queryText=depression
And Pub Med is another non-commercial site similar to medline plus but perhaps on a more technical level. I would think either search engine will bring up technical research.
 
And Pub Med is another non-commercial site similar to medline plus but perhaps on a more technical level. I would think either search engine will bring up technical research.

True... I did not include it because it mostly points to abstracts. Occasionally the abstract will point to a free journal article. Often to get the full paper would require a trip to a university library (if they subscribe to the online service), or to a municipal library (some larger city libraries will subscribe to the online service). It usually requires going in person.
 
I think I'll consider this thread officially 'derailed' and conclude I've got enough appropriate responses to give food for thought on my original question.

A quick comment; a lot of the debate here has resulted from an incorrect way of viewing 'disease'. There's several definitions, but essentially all focus on the fact it is pathological (big word which basically means 'to make weaker') and it is a variation from 'normal' (which is the big problem - normal is a variation in itself). In other words, knowing when something is a disease and when it is mere variation is impossible.

Through genetics and mere environmental influence, we are all different. To make matters worse, the environments we live in are different. To give an example of where this is relevant, Australian Indigenous children are typically diagnosed with ADHD. This was never a problem in an environment where large periods of non-interactive learning never occured. Hence, it could not be termed a disease. Change the situation, and it becomes pathological.

Until people accept that our behaviour is purely the product of our biochemistry and as such is innately variable between individuals, they will continue to make mistakes.

Athon
 
I think I'll consider this thread officially 'derailed' and conclude I've got enough appropriate responses to give food for thought on my original question....

I did look for information pertaining to evolution and depression, but it seemed those search words were used in papers on all sorts of other things (depression meaning a hole, or recession in a material and evolution being the change of one idea to the next). Sorry.

But, I do remember there is a local researcher who writes on evolution and brain developement. I don't think he has tackled depression, but here is his website if you wish to wade through the other stuff he has written:
http://williamcalvin.com/index.htm
 
Christine, I read the above as likening a blood test for another disease to the scoring answers on a test. If you didn't mean it that way, I can certainly see how someone could read it as such.

There was once a blood test that was used to "detect" depression: the dexamethasone suppression test. In the late 80's, several researchers claimed clinically depressed patients would show a distinct abnormal response not found in normal patients, and for a time it was used diagnostically.

Research showed it couldn't reliably distinguish between clinically healthy and clinically depressed patients; it was no better than chance. It was abandoned.
 
...
A quick comment; a lot of the debate here has resulted from an incorrect way of viewing 'disease'. There's several definitions, but essentially all focus on the fact it is pathological (big word which basically means 'to make weaker') and it is a variation from 'normal' (which is the big problem - normal is a variation in itself). In other words, knowing when something is a disease and when it is mere variation is impossible.
You can think of it more on a continuum where you know it is pathological at one end and healthy at the other but there is some gray area in the middle.

Through genetics and mere environmental influence, we are all different. To make matters worse, the environments we live in are different. To give an example of where this is relevant, Australian Indigenous children are typically diagnosed with ADHD. This was never a problem in an environment where large periods of non-interactive learning never occured. Hence, it could not be termed a disease. Change the situation, and it becomes pathological.

Until people accept that our behaviour is purely the product of our biochemistry and as such is innately variable between individuals, they will continue to make mistakes.

Athon
Behavior standards are probably one area where assessing pathological, and assessing good and bad, are always going to depend on the standard applied. I'm not sure it's correct though to condemn a modern psychiatric diagnosis with a tainted brush from past bigotry. OTOH, you were asking about adaptive behavior or adaptive emotions. If what you say about aboriginal children is true, (because I have to question that it is given the fact we just aren't that genetically different from each other), an "abnormality" isn't always useless even if it is pathological. And, if the behavior in question is learned, then it isn't necessarily pathological if it is useful in one setting but troublesome in another.
 
From the article:



Oh, you people slay me.

I should also ask you something I thought of after you logged off because I am on the west coast (it is only 11pm here), and as any good high school student in the midwest you should be in bed or still playing some online computer game....

What do you have against the science of neurology? Or just science in general?

Do you just automatically reject all science that goes against your pre-conceived idea of how the world should work?
 
...Why does the topic of depression always attract so many 'experts' who make statements based more on high-school gossip than actual reading?

*sigh*

Athon

I noticed that some of this discussion has the same caliber of "scientific scrutiny" that I vaguely remember from camp fire discussions when I was in high school. My days in high school were in the era before disco... so I assume your experience as a high school science teacher would be more contemporary!

Those days were also when "research" was limited to what was available in the home encyclopedia and the school library. One would hope that modern high-school students would at least attempt to use available search engines at www.medlineplus.gov and www.pubmed.gov to form some kind of intelligent argument.
 
I noticed that some of this discussion has the same caliber of "scientific scrutiny" that I vaguely remember from camp fire discussions when I was in high school. My days in high school were in the era before disco... so I assume your experience as a high school science teacher would be more contemporary!

Before disco? I think I learned about that age in ancient history when I was in high school. Stone Age, Bronze Age, Rock Age, Disco Age, The Age of the Bad Pink Shirts and Prince Songs...

Those days were also when "research" was limited to what was available in the home encyclopedia and the school library. One would hope that modern high-school students would at least attempt to use available search engines at www.medlineplus.gov and www.pubmed.gov to form some kind of intelligent argument.

Yeah, it'd be nice to think kids would even have a grasp of how to effectively use the internet for something other than MSN, porn and online gaming.

Maybe in the future.

Athon
 
You can think of it more on a continuum where you know it is pathological at one end and healthy at the other but there is some gray area in the middle.

I guess, as long as one remains aware that 'pathology' is often relevant to aspects of the environment (including the organism's own internal environment).

Behavior standards are probably one area where assessing pathological, and assessing good and bad, are always going to depend on the standard applied. I'm not sure it's correct though to condemn a modern psychiatric diagnosis with a tainted brush from past bigotry.

No, I agree. It's a science that is slowly adapting, however, and only through active criticism and constant evaluation will it evolve to be more beneficial.

OTOH, you were asking about adaptive behavior or adaptive emotions. If what you say about aboriginal children is true, (because I have to question that it is given the fact we just aren't that genetically different from each other)

I'm not sure what you're saying here. Please, feel free to question, but why are you questioning it on account of 'similar genetics'. There's a lot of evidence supporting the fact that ADHD is due in part to genetic variation. Aborigines simply have a higher occurance of this variation.

...an "abnormality" isn't always useless even if it is pathological. And, if the behavior in question is learned, then it isn't necessarily pathological if it is useful in one setting but troublesome in another.

Which is why I was saying pathology often relates to the environment.

Athon
 

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