Cain
Straussian
no one in particular said:However, this is not really a capitalism-v/s-socialism debate; it is a “does socialism equal economic democracy” debate. And, as such, I will give it a go. I am certain that I will be educated by the experience. And, honestly, this Einstein was a socialist thread is silly and needs a good hijacking.
NOP- I just want to be clear that only real reason why I initially incorporated capitalism into my response was that you claimed it came closer to democracy.
I will relent that the “one dollar, one vote” concept seems weighted to the wealthy. However the point of the free market is that anyone can achieve the goal of having more dollars, more votes.
Okay, fine. Everyone can "increase their dollars," but it's all relative. The market still caters to those with more money, regardless. If you mean to say that anyone can become rich, I'll ony point out that not everyone can, and, income mobility does not compensate for income inequality.
At the onset, it is an equal playing field.
No it's not. There are natural and unnatural inequalities. Some people are born into wealth and privilege, and thus enjoy far greater opportunities than others. These advantages are unearned and undermine the idea of an "equal playing field." A free society determines one's outcome on the basis of choice rather than circumstances. I think capitalism, especially the laissez-faire type, rejects that premise.
Whereas, in a socialistic society there is no motivation to improve your number of votes; you are already equal by virtue of having been born. What motivation does an individual have to be productive when there is no chance to improve his position? I realize that this is an extremely basic question.
As I said there are many types of socialism. Michael Albert, for example, has a new book called Parecon: Life After Capitalism where he argues, quite persusaively, that remuneration ought to be based on effort (in capitalism it's based on productivity). A market socialist believes in fashioning firms as democratic institutions, so people may agree on any sort of payment scheme (there are still market mechanisms, but the owners decide).
I assume you are saying that since profit is the motivator behind business, the folks that are unable to afford the products that the business produce are of no concern to the to the business. I guess that is a fair statement. Compassion is the motivator behind helping individuals and money, not compassion is the drive of business. However, in a free market, charity is in the compassion business. If folks were not paying the high taxes of quasi-socialism/capitalism then charity would have a much better chance at success.
I've always found that to be a dubious claim, but it doesn't really matter (during the stock market euphoria, for example, charitable giving declined).
First off, oy, Noam Chomsky? The gentleman, by his own admission, does not have answers, just questions. I wish I could make a living asking questions. Perhaps I should claim that my questions are as good as Noam Chomsky’s and suggest that he should share his income with me. Do you think he would go for that?
I only quoted Chomsky to recount the idea that those who work in steel mills ought to own them. He doesn't play any greater role in my argument, so I'm not sure what your'e doing here.
Why? Was it the intellectual property of the those workers that started this mill? Did their work lend to the generation of capitol that purchased the property or the equipment for the mill?
To the first question: people ought to own the mill to have control over the lives. Socialists believe in this idea called self-management. Instead of taking orders from an arbitrary authority, everyone fashions the institutions where the labor to their own ideals (and, as I said, there are at least several different versions of socialism, just as there are variants of capitalism).
The secnod part of the above paragraph assumes some kind of coherent doctrine of property rights, which I denied below.
Capitalism is founded, I think, on roughly two premises:
1) Certain individuals own the external world.
2) Free-trade- individuals can trade their property as they please in markets.
I can dispute both, but I'm only really taking issue with the first one here: how do people come to legitimately own a tract of land? That's an important question because the second premise requires a compelling explanation. You address it below
The origins of property are: I killed this goat, I will eat it. I planted and grew this fruit tree with my labor, if you want some of my apples, you must give me some of the oranges that you labored to produce. I got to this cave first, I will keep it.
Finders-keepers? I think it's better to imagine that we get ship-wrecked on an island because it does away with a lot of the needless complications in economics and philosophy. So do some people just run out for a land grab and start claiming things? "I own that, and that, and that, and that; I own this coconut tree because I climbed to the top first; I own this cave because I wrote my name on the wall."
If we do wish to bring in historical complications, how do you account for Europeans colonizing the Americas? They were discovered originally by the Indians, and forcibly pushed off the land. Are we to return it to the Indians now? If no, why?
Wrong, everyone is a capitalist selling their product or ability to their internal or external customer.
I suppose you can use any definition of capitalist you please. I don't think that particular definition is useful (or historically accurate), but fine.
Fascinating, I have never heard anyone suggest that others should not ask questions in a free market. I doubt I have given a “plausible explanation” that you will accept. Also, it does appear that I have argued capitalism v/s socialism. Oops. [/B]
The first part is wrong: I was discussing property ownership, not the free-market (people need to legitimately possess things in order to trade them).
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Victor writes:
Well, that's simply irrelevant. meat-producing agriculture and all, we still waste trememdnous amounts of crops. What makes you think that more of the excess crops would reach the needy if we had more to spare?
We discussed this at length in the other thread. I'm only pointing out that market mechanisms result in wastefulness and inefficiency. The market BOTH feeds grain to animals, and with-holds food from the poor. Each part is dictated by the market, and the negation of the former does not necessarily translate into food for the poor.
Yup. And this is why we have tax/transfer infrastructure, publically funded research, and welfare state -- we are mitigating the problems of pure capitalism with regulations and social control. It's a much more economically efficient solution than straight socialism.
On the first part, I agree. Welfare state liberals can offer far more compelling arguments than the laissez-faire/libertarian crowd, if only because they recognize some instances of market failure. Nonetheless, welfare liberals discount the idea of self-management and the myth of property. As for "efficient solutions", I think that goes to my point about food production (and distribution) and medical research. There are other problems, but instead of writing a laundry list against capitalism, I'll just defend socialism. I do not understand the last two words in your above paragraph -- "straight socialism".
Well, the simple and true explanation is that ultimately, property was simply a claim of power -- ability to control and defend something. that does not, however, mean that we would be better off if we set out to rectify those "past wrongs" by expropriating property and redistributing it fairly. Zimbabwe is in dire straights now because they tried just that.
Property still requires an explanation. Or are you saying, "Yes, it's all arbitrary, but from this point forward, let's defend property relations."
Since I recently wrote a paper dealing with these issues, I'll quote a relevant point from Herbert Spencer:
“…Time,” say some, ‘is a great legaliser. Immemorial possession
must be taken to constitute a legitimate claim. That which has
been held from age to age as private property, and has been
ought and sold as such, must now be considered as irrevocably
belonging to individuals.” To which proposition a willing assent
shall be given when its propounders can assign it a definite
meaning. To do this, however, they must find satisfactory answers to such questions as -- How long does it take for what was originally a wrong to grow into a right? At what rate per annum do invalid claims become valid? If a title gets perfect in a thousand years, how much more than perfect will it be in two thousand years? -- and so forth. For the solution of which they will require a new calculus.
Spencer has some of the best arguments against land ownership in his original edition of Social Statics.
Ultimately, a measure of economic inequality is justifiable on grounds of economic efficiency; we the society should control how much inequality we have, though.
It depends how you want to define socialism. If we take socialism to mean "perfect equality," then okay. But not all sociailists believe everyone should have the same income (indeed, my original definition only requires that the workers own and control the means of production). In Mondragon cooperatives in Spain, for example, some people make as much as six times as others. It's still better than CEOs making 500 times their workers, especially since cooperative strive toward equality, self-management, solidarity and all those other good values.