zosima
Muse
- Joined
- Mar 1, 2008
- Messages
- 536
So I'm curious if anyone understands any of the case law around earmarks and how it is understood that they are constitutional under the constraints placed by the US constitution. I have two issues:
(1) The taxing and spending clause allows spending for the general welfare. It seems aimed at national and distributed spending. How can the federal government justify earmark spending that is often unequal and on local issues?
(2) It seems that earmark spending could be used to undermine the founders' intent when it comes to the requirements that exports not be taxed and that taxation be uniform. For example: The Fed could subsidize the transport of goods with an exception of one, thereby increasing the relative cost to export that good. Effectively taxing exports. Or the fed could subsidize California's corn but not Ohio's, thereby increasing the relative cost of Ohio's corn, de-facto it accomplishes the aim prohibited by the uniformity clause by establishing a non-uniform economic advantage on one state over another. It seems that (2) might be unconstitutional even if (1) is not.
So how are these allowed? The only thing I can think of, is that people trying to sue in court may not have the Taxpayer Standing to sue, thus preventing the courts from ever eliminating unconstitutional earmarks.
(1) The taxing and spending clause allows spending for the general welfare. It seems aimed at national and distributed spending. How can the federal government justify earmark spending that is often unequal and on local issues?
(2) It seems that earmark spending could be used to undermine the founders' intent when it comes to the requirements that exports not be taxed and that taxation be uniform. For example: The Fed could subsidize the transport of goods with an exception of one, thereby increasing the relative cost to export that good. Effectively taxing exports. Or the fed could subsidize California's corn but not Ohio's, thereby increasing the relative cost of Ohio's corn, de-facto it accomplishes the aim prohibited by the uniformity clause by establishing a non-uniform economic advantage on one state over another. It seems that (2) might be unconstitutional even if (1) is not.
So how are these allowed? The only thing I can think of, is that people trying to sue in court may not have the Taxpayer Standing to sue, thus preventing the courts from ever eliminating unconstitutional earmarks.