gabeygoat
Master Poster
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I have the thought that some people - including many politicians - use evidence to support their pre-decided conclusion rather than letting the data lead inexorably to any conclusion - and they don't quite see what they're getting wrong. Backtofront-itis.
This is an unevidenced assertion, though!
Source: Me! From yesterday.
From the G. https://www.theguardian.com/comment...-facts-fraudulent-character#comment-150156868
[qimg]http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/imagehosting/thum_7495760d3cfeb3773b.png[/qimg]
Under my avatar, I conveniently indicate my location as USA, yes.
Um...I'm not talking about what degrees a politician might have. Or degrees at all. Or politicians, for that matter. I'm talking about anyone who has a personal political philosophy, as most of us do. You can have a personal philosophy without a freaking degree in it, or a degree in anything for that matter.
Wait...you do agree with that, don't you?
No, I meant what I said. Sport Boxing on the TV has virtually nothing to do with a personal philosophy of self defense.
Disagreed. While they might not use the word, they likely have very complex and sophisticated philosophies regarding their sport, training and bout strategies.
But again, the professional sport boxing industry has pretty much nothing to do with an individual's philosophy of self defense.
Try the pursuits I actually referred to, and see if you come up with the same answer.
eta: I note under your screen name, you identify as a philosopher. Checkmate![]()
You said:
...to which I asked, why do you say it leads to nothing?
If I am posing practical philosophy that most of us employ
Sure sounds like philosophy falls under that umbrella to me. Sure doesn't sound limited to science deniers. But I'm open to your evidence.
OK, so we are back to "all constructive thought is philosophy" ... brilliant, so my cat does philosophy all day long ... so do all the birds in my garden. Dinosaurs used to do the same before they eventually (slowly!) died out 66 million years ago.
eta: I note under your screen name, you identify as a philosopher. Checkmate![]()
Um...I'm not talking about what degrees a politician might have. Or degrees at all. Or politicians, for that matter. I'm talking about anyone who has a personal political philosophy, as most of us do. You can have a personal philosophy without a freaking degree in it, or a degree in anything for that matter.
Wait...you do agree with that, don't you?
I can't let this one slide, Ian. Birds are dinosaurs.
You have a "personal political philosophy"? ... how is that different from anyone having views and opinions about politics?.
I responded that while you can study logic philosophically (you can pretty much study anything you like philosophically), the rules of logic have not been established by philosophers; they are just innate to existence.
And my way of demonstrating this is trying to show people that there's no way to argue that X and ~X can possibly be both true at once. So far no one's tried because it's patently obvious.
It's really difficult to see what you mean with "rules of logic" here. There are hundreds of different logics with rules that are incompatible with each other.
That's exactly what I was getting at. If logic, the basis of which is that things cannot contradict themselves in reality, is an axiom, then it cannot be discussed philosophically.
You lot have been buzzing around that conclusion for days because you know it leads to "logic" NOT being part of philosophy. Say what you want about science folks but they don't shy away from uncomfortable conclusions.
Is the weak nuclear force a material thing?
Yes or no.
This must be some new definition of "logic" that I was previously unaware of.
And no I don't care if "Well such and philosophy considers this or that a valid form of logic..."
Glad I could help you. Here are two examples of different logics that people actually use in practice:
* If you want to verify that your new communication protocol works correctly, you should use either LTL or CTL*, depending on what exactly you want to validate.
* If you want to program your computer using logic, you can use, for example, Prolog or Datalog (Prolog's semantics are quite close but not exactly the same as classical predicate logic's but the Datalog semantics are different).
To be frank, most logics that are useful do not originate from the philosophy department but from either mathematics or computer science ones.
Mathematically, a logic consists of two parts: syntax and semantics. The syntax defines what are syntactically valid formulas in the logic. For example: "for all x . P(x) implies Q(x)" is syntactically valid classical formula but "forall x P(not x)" is not. Most modern logics extend the syntax of classical logic by adding new operators to the syntax. For example, the LTL that I mentioned before adds operators:
* G - intuitive meaning "always"
* F - intuitive meaning "finally"
* R - intuitive meaning "something is true until a condition is met"
(and a few others that can be implemented using terms of those operators)
For example, "aRb" means that a is true up to some point in the future when b becomes true and b is true from that on.
The semantics then define how we assign truth values to the formulas and how truth values are propagated and what logical consequence means in the logic.
Basically, the semantics of a logic is defined over some class of mathematical structures. For classical predicate logic we use relational structures over some universe. A classical formula is valid if it is true in all possible structures and unsatisfiable if there is no structure where it is true.
When you use predicate logic to solve some practical problem, you first formalize the rules of the problem into formulas, then define the structure of the problem, and finally evaluate the formulas with respect to the structure to find your answer.
Modal logics (like the LTL and CTL*) generally define their semantics using Kripke structures. There the idea is that there is a set of worlds and each world is a classical structure. There is also an accessibility relation that tells how we can move between the worlds.
For logics that we use for system verification each world consists to the state of the system in one particular time step. So world 0 defines the state of the system at the beginning and the worlds that are accessible from there correspond to the states of the system that we can reach by taking one step such as sending one message to someone.
The different logics that I mentioned in this post have no actual relevance to the thread, but they are just examples to show that logic has progressed quite far from the mid-19th century. Trying to discuss logic without being aware of that is about as helpful as trying to discuss the mind without knowing what has happened with brain sciences during the last 50 years.
Dafrick? This is some "You have to agree with me before the discussion begins" nonsense. This is like the theists arguing that just pointing at the Bible and grunting is an answer when the topic is God.
Belz's (and mine and a few others) entire point is that philosophy (as the term as nebulous as it is is normally used) doesn't really have any of the answers it pretends to (or has redefined the concept of "answer" into pure meaninglessness.)
So yeah the fact that you can can't give an acceptable answer "in philosophical terms" is literally the point being proved.
Great, I'm not arguing for or ageist the usefulness or lack thereof of philosophy.