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Detax Canada

Is it possible that the latest revision to the ITA of Canada has changed 'persons resident in Canada to: 'free will men, male and female, living on the land commonly called Canada'

No but I don't see any distinction between the wording as it stands and the changes you are contemplating. Your version would work fine as well assuming that you had a definition for "free will man" that included all living humans in Canada. But just because you can think of an alternate wording or alternate definitions, that doesn't mean there is anything wrong with the current definition.

And, 'persons resident in Canada' ? Would that not mean 'an inanimate 'thing' sitting somewhere,

No, a person is a living human being. Not an inanimate thing. This should be self evident, but if not I suggest reading one of the many court decisions posted in this thread where the court confirms this fact.

and 'in Canada' means within something, like a vessel, and not ON the land.

No, it means on the land. Within the boundaries of Canadian territory. I don't really understand what the argument is here because common usage of the English language would disagree with you.

For instance, look at the first definition for the word "in" that is offered by dictionary.com.

in   /ɪn/ Show Spelled [in] Show IPA preposition, adverb, adjective, noun, verb, inned, in·ning.

–preposition

1. (used to indicate inclusion within space, a place, or limits): walking in the park.

It would be clear to anyone relaying on accepted English language conventions that "in Canada" means "within the limits of the place called Canada."

[Emphasis by bold and size is mine.]

Thank you for pointing that out. That was very courteous of you to avoid possible confusion.
 
And, 'persons resident in Canada' ? Would that not mean 'an inanimate 'thing' sitting somewhere, and 'in Canada' means within something, like a vessel, and not ON the land.

No.

You are trying to redefine common words to fit your fantasy. Will you next attempt to redefine black as white?

Rational people understand that to mean someone who lives in Canada, but you want to bend the English language until it breaks and becomes meaningless.
 
Cannibal, according to the etymology from the Oxford English Dictionary.
[In 16th c. pl. Canibales, a. Sp. Canibales, originally one of the forms of the ethnic name Carib or Caribes, a fierce nation of the West Indies, who are recorded to have been anthropophagi, and from whom the name was subsequently extended as a descriptive term. . . . ]
Nothing to do with Ba'al at all.
 
With apologies for the diversion...

EldonG said:
Up until the 2nd edition of the KJV Bible, the name was 'IESUS'. The Latin abbreviation 'IE' means 'That Is' or 'It is'. The 'J' wasn't used in the Latin alphabet until the late 1600s AD. Phonetically, the 'je' = ge or geo, meaning physical earty or earthly material. See geologist, geology.

Well, I think that you are correct about the letter "j," more or less. It's the consonant form of "i." It came into use with French in the 1400's, and other romance languages over the next few hundred years. In English, there were / are rules for where to use "j" and where to use "dg" (jerk vs. hedge, for example). But anyway...

EldonG said:
The Latin word for 'pig, swine, hog = sus. The domestic pig has the biologic name: sus domestica

Is your point that Catholics chose a Latin name for their savior which intentionally disrespects the very guy on whom their whole religion is based? Why would they do this?

Your statement is the common ' cover story' to hide the fact that the Red Robed Priesthood of Isis were really behind the early death of Yehsua, in that their students from the Babylonian Captivity, the Pharisees carried out their 'elimination of a man with the poison against their fascist system.
So it's a "cover story" to hide this fact. Except that pretty much everyone around spoke Latin at the time and any idiot with a latin dictionary can figure out the big secret? Sort of like when I tell my female boss "C U Next Tuesday?" You are the only one that has this figured out? Do you do numerology too?

EldonG said:
FOREVER? You don't say. The Acts of Union in 1707 might have mentioned it.

And, you insinuate that 1707 was the end of FOREVER? Interesting!
I insinuated no such thing. It just seems like common sense that, when documenting the Acts of Union, the Parliament of Scotland might have put in a footnote like "by the way, despite all the "Great Britain" stuff in this document, the Pope is overlord of England forever!"
 
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I don't really understand what the argument is here because common usage of the English language would disagree with you.



When you get right down to it, wilfully misreading the language of statutes is really all they have going for them (besides the bizarro religious nuttery, of course). They insist on definitions and interpretations that are at odds with those of pretty much everyone else involved in the discussion.

When you have a guy who refuses to accept that the word "person" encompasses a "natural human being", there's really nothing more you can say to him. The mental disconnect is too great.
 
So, red robed priests of Isis something something Roman Law something something City of London something something Jesus is a pig something something Queen Victoria something something equals I don't have to pay taxes?

I'm interested in this. I have never enjoyed paying taxes, and if I can make it so that everyone else pays and I don't, that would be really swell for a lazy SOB like me. So, could you give me any examples of real cases when this argument actually works?
 
Takin' the E out of JREF

'Free man' (liber homo) means 'free will man', the proper status of Creator God's Children on Planet Earth.

I don't think that you should do linguistics, unless it's for the comedy.



Even if right, it would be homo liber, with the words reversed. Solvo vir, maybe? Any Latin speakers?
 
Never heard of the fellow. Well, if you were to open your eyes and clear the wax from your ears, you might notice that many of the influential politicians in Canada and the USA, as well as in GP, are Knights of Malta. That organization has its own city/state within Rome.

Previous points? Obviously they weren't worthy of an intelligent answer.

Aren't they a charity group?

So the Protestant reformation wasn't important to the Popes power? Wow. Just wow... I want to speak to your history teacher old man, right now!
 
How could you be so silly? You thought Eldon was a "freeman" when he's actually a "free man". Can't you see that the space between the two words makes all the difference?

Sort of like the Saskatchewan Roughriders and the Ottawa Rough Riders?
 
I can see why courts get exasperated with these folks; imagine simply redefining words as an argument, then staring at you blankly when you explain why they are wrong. "In Canada" simply means inside the geographical borders of the country of Canada. Sheesh.
 
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I can see why courts get exasperated with these folks; imagine simply redefining words as an argument, then staring at you blankly when you explain why they are wrong. "In Canada" simply means inside the geographical borders of the country of Canada. Sheesh.

+1

not to mention these cases don't help the backlog that is the court system
 
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Sort of like the Saskatchewan Roughriders and the Ottawa Rough Riders?



Yes, exactly. The existence of the Space Clearly Demonstrates the Far Superior Nature of The One Over the Other.



The fact that they don't exist anymore is irrelevant to the issue.
 
Yes, exactly. The existence of the Space Clearly Demonstrates the Far Superior Nature of The One Over the Other.



The fact that they don't exist anymore is irrelevant to the issue.
Go Renegades! Wait...D'oh!
 
Is your point that Catholics chose a Latin name for their savior which intentionally disrespects the very guy on whom their whole religion is based? Why would they do this?

It wasn't 'Catholics' who made such a decision. It was the Red Robed Priesthood of Isis. That priesthood had brough a conglamorate religion with them to Rome, when they established Rome around 300 BC, called Mythraism. That priesthood has always used 'religion' to implement their true trinity - Force, Fear and False Hope. Mithraism had served them well for this purpose, but when Emperor Constantine (as Pontifex Maximus, ordered the Priesthood to accept Christianity, they had to do some major modifications the Christianity of the first 3 centuries AD they were saddled with, so as to serve their 'slave control' mechanisms as part of the corporate structure for their society that they continued from Egypt, through Babylon and on into Rome.

The Red Robed Priesthood has always been primarly 'priest/kings' where secular rule dominated their existence. Religion was, and always has been a tool to control the subject people under their control.

Those who doubt my stating that all corporate bodies are 'make believe ships at sea' should be aware that 'to govern' means to 'steer, direct or administer a ship at sea. It has nothing to do with a land based world. A land based world has 'servants' to do what individuals are incapable of doing on their own.

So it's a "cover story" to hide this fact. Except that pretty much everyone around spoke Latin at the time and any idiot with a latin dictionary can figure out the big secret? Sort of like when I tell my female boss "C U Next Tuesday?" You are the only one that has this figured out? Do you do numerology too?

I would wonder about that myself, but the evidence strongly suggests that the fear factor didn't allow such inquiry, without one losing one's head by the Inquisitors. Maybe, the explanation from India suggests a reason. Their gurus say that our world has been in a 12,000 year state of darkness, where minds have not been capable of great though or thinking - the Kali Yuga. And, at this period of history, we are emerging from that mental incapacity as evidenced by the great leaps in technology of the last 100 years.

I insinuated no such thing. It just seems like common sense that, when documenting the Acts of Union, the Parliament of Scotland might have put in a footnote like "by the way, despite all the "Great Britain" stuff in this document, the Pope is overlord of England forever!"

All you have to do is read documents on Roman Catholic websites regarding
Pope Innocent III and Pope Boniface VIII.

Innocent III became Overlord of England in 1213. Pope Boniface VIII was
responsible for the incorporation of the English Crown in 1297, and the declaring of 'all humankind' subjects of the Pontiff of Rome in Unam Sanctam of 1302.

If you doubt my explanation that the Vatican is about 90% secular (world control) and only 10% religion, then do your own research. Don't just ignorantly call me names and make derogatory statements about me.
You just deceive yourself by doing that. I am impervious to insults and derogation of my character. I don't have to defend myself against anything
relative attacks against me on forums. I would just like to see people wake-up to reality.
 

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