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Philosopher
- Joined
- Apr 18, 2004
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- 7,324
As I said, the statement ''they who experience life subjectively" implies a 'they' who do not experience life subjectively. If the implication was not intended, then the statement is redundant, which raises the question of why it was said at all.
That's why it seems opaque.
Perhaps if you showed me where it was said, the question of why it was said could be answered.
It will have something to do with context I am guessing