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Define “Agnostic”

I believe I'll have a beer tonight. I'm quite aware that I'm tired and might decide not to but for the moment I believe I shall.

*Sighs* I literally actually typed up an entire extra paragraph in my original post acknowledging the difference between the word "belief" as an off the cuff euphemism for "I want to" (as in "I believe I'll have a grill cheese sandwich for lunch tomorrow") and the use of the term to mean religious style belief with a curt "Before any of the on call pedantic squad split this hair..." and decided to delete it before posting because I figured nobody was going to be so pedantically obtuse as to confuse the two and I didn't want to come across as snarky.

I should have known better.

You know damn well the difference between the two usages of the term and in what context the term was being used here. I hereby acknowledge the pointless semantic quibble I shouldn't have had to acknowledge in the first place, we can move on now.
 
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I believe I'll have a beer tonight. I'm quite aware that I'm tired and might decide not to but for the moment I believe I shall.

I think I'll have one tonight. Couple of craft porters, specifically. In thread terms, though, I don't believe I will. I just think I will.
 
A belief is simply a firmly held opinion that something is true. It would be technically incorrect to say “I believe the sun will rise tomorrow;” we have ample evidence that it will and a good scientific understanding of why the sun “rises.” That is simply knowledge or a fact. “I know the sun will rise tomorrow.”

An opinion is much more general than that. “That song sucks,” is an opinion because it reflects only your experience of the song. It isn’t universally true but you do have some evidence for it -the song itself is readily demonstrable and only you can determine whether or not you like it.

“I believe in god,” is an opinion, yes; but, usually the person who says that is conveying something deeper -that they are sure that God is a real entity. They have no real evidence for god’s existence that is universally acceptable or amenable to verification by others. Sure, they might have some personal experience that they count as evidence but such evidence is strictly personal -much like whether or not a song sucks. Many people with beliefs are willing to die or kill for those beliefs. At the very least, a belief is something deeply held that colors every facet of that person’s personality, thinking and behavior. In other words a belief is an opinion that substitutes for knowledge.

So we can say that an agnostic is a person who has grokked this distinction between opinion and knowledge and therefore states that they cannot know whether or not there are gods even if they have an opinion one way or the other. Pascal’s wager could be considered one statement of agnosticism; “God? Meh...” is another.


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The discussion in this thread has supported my opinion that "agnostic" is a term that has no real use outside the circles of philosophers and nit pickers. Much like the meaningless distinction between so-called "soft" and "hard" atheism.
 
The discussion in this thread has supported my opinion that "agnostic" is a term that has no real use outside the circles of philosophers and nit pickers. Much like the meaningless distinction between so-called "soft" and "hard" atheism.

Philosophy 101 - How to nitpick and make it sound all deep and meaningful.
 
Philosophy 101 - How to nitpick and make it sound all deep and meaningful.

Internet Philosophy Fanclub 101 is that, a mixture of semantics and argumentative nitpicking that has all the intellectual weight of "Wait a minute... Apple Jacks don't even taste like apples!"

Real philosophy is very different and very rarely carries the anti-intellectual or "therefore Woo" baggage it does on the internet.
 
In logics a “positive claim of a negative sentence” doesn’t exist. There are two kinds of sentences: positive or negative. “x is y”; “x is not y”. Therefore you can affirm the existence of anything or deny it. The burden of proof lies on the affirmative sentence. There is an obvious reason: if it is not so, we had to accept every absurd entity that a fool could invent.

Therefore the atheist (hard atheist or gnostic atheist, if you like) has a good reason to reject agnosticism (soft atheism, agnostic atheism or other else you like call it): he has a good reason to affirm that God doesn’t exist: nobody has been able to give a good reason to affirm that he exists. In addition: God is a supernatural thing, absolutely diverse to our common knowledge. Extraordinary facts require extraordinary proofs.

When we speak of lack of evidence on God or the Fairy Queen we are not speaking of scientific hypothesis as black holes and bacteria. A scientific hypothesis raises in the context of a theory, is proposed as a solution of a scientific problem and is verifiable by a scientific method, in theory at least. God and Fairy Queen are not. They are proposed as not verifiable entities in the context of sheer beliefs. The lack of evidence is absolute. You cannot equate God with bacteria.
So are you essentially saying that it's logical to move from something cannot be verified to claiming non-existence? In the above (before the "In addition") the suggestion you appear to be making is that merely not having the burden of proof was good enough reason to affirm non-existence.

I'm not equating bacteria with God, I'm intentionally using something we now have evidence for, that at some point we didn't, as a thought experiment to test the logic. Before we had the tools to verify microscopic organisms, if someone suggested that maybe there were tiny creatures, invisible to the human eye, making people ill, would it have been logical to affirm their non-existence, if there were no way to test this at the time?

Is this what you mean with “other reasoning than pure lack of evidence”?
Possibly, but I don't think I'm seeing a logical difference between "we don't have the tools/ability to scientifically test this right now, but, in theory, could in future" and "this isn't scientifically testable". A practical/pragmatic difference, perhaps, but not logical, in terms of affirming something's existence or non-existence.
 
Before the existence of bacteria was discovered there was no conclusion of their non-existence that I’m aware of, there was merely no knowledge of their existence. There was never a lack of evidence of bacteria, there was merely lack of our ability to observe it.

To equate “normal” bacteria (the existence of which doesn’t contradict any currently known knowledge) as an analogy for “paranormal” gods (the existence of which would contradict all currently known knowledge) is ludicrous.

Try analogies using things equally as imaginary, invisible, magical, and metaphysical as gods (dragons or fairies perhaps?).

See my post above. I'm not sure you're understanding my point in the context it was made and the posts it was addressing. I was specifically referring to the logical steps, not making an analogy, so bringing in other possible reasons for dismissing something would just be muddying the waters.

ETA: This caught my attention though:
There was never a lack of evidence of bacteria, there was merely lack of our ability to observe it.
That's an interesting way of looking at things. How can something that can't be observed be called evidence?

Are you claiming extinction conclusions, based on the complete lack of evidence that any of the particular species are alive, are illogical conclusions?.
A lack of evidence for something, when evidence should demonstrably be expected, is evidence in itself. (I guess this is one case where something that can't be observed is evidence).
 
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So are you essentially saying that it's logical to move from something cannot be verified to claiming non-existence? In the above (before the "In addition") the suggestion you appear to be making is that merely not having the burden of proof was good enough reason to affirm non-existence.

I'm not equating bacteria with God, I'm intentionally using something we now have evidence for, that at some point we didn't, as a thought experiment to test the logic. Before we had the tools to verify microscopic organisms, if someone suggested that maybe there were tiny creatures, invisible to the human eye, making people ill, would it have been logical to affirm their non-existence, if there were no way to test this at the time?

Possibly, but I don't think I'm seeing a logical difference between "we don't have the tools/ability to scientifically test this right now, but, in theory, could in future" and "this isn't scientifically testable". A practical/pragmatic difference, perhaps, but not logical, in terms of affirming something's existence or non-existence.
The general rule is that the burden of proof lies on affirmative propositions of existence. Some particular precisions can made to reinforce or modify this general rule. Never to contradict it. I have made some precisions about God that reinforce the burden of proof. We are speaking of God. God is not a microbe. You should search for a more suitable example.

I don’t know any scientist that had made a prediction about the existence of bacteria without some debatable arguments. Do you know anyone? Of course, vague descriptions of atoms were made long before Rutherford, but they were metaphysical ideas very dissimilar to the current concept of atom. We admire Democritus because he was an original thinker and a free spirit, but his atom was only imagination, not knowledge of anything.

You are right. If you are not able to foreseen the empirical testing of your concepts in a rational lapse of time, your concepts have the same reliability that the existence of the Fairy Queen.

Science is not absolute. You cannot deny absolutely the existence of unknown entities. But believing in unknown entities because you imagine them is irrational. Especially when they are not testable by definition, that is to say, deduced by a scientific method —or common sense in a less rigorous circumstance. This is to say, God the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit.

This is the question: Have we to give credibility to Nostradamus because some of his predictions vaguely matched ulterior events?
 
A lack of evidence for something, when evidence should demonstrably be expected, is evidence in itself. (I guess this is one case where something that can't be observed is evidence).
Why does this not also apply to dragons, fairies, and gods?
 
A belief is simply a firmly held opinion that something is true. It would be technically incorrect to say “I believe the sun will rise tomorrow;” we have ample evidence that it will and a good scientific understanding of why the sun “rises.” That is simply knowledge or a fact. “I know the sun will rise tomorrow.”

Ah I think here is the issue. I would acknowledge that there is some nanoscopically minute possibility that some quantum/gravity/darkmatter/deflector array modulated by a sonic screwdriver event outside my knowledge of astrophysics might prevent that.
That is why I say I am practically (i.e for all intents and purposes except 1) an atheist but technically speaking, because I don't know everything, I am an agnostic.
Of course I think it would be a matter of huge importance if the sun didn't rise tomorrow. Do I think or believe I need to give the matter a second's thought? No, apart from the time I took to write this. In my opinion of course, but I have faith in my opinion.
 
I am an agnostic atheist because while I do not know if God exists I do not believe he does. And I am an apatheist because God is unfalsifiable by
definition so I can never know whether or not he exists. Therefore from a practical perspective it makes absolutely no difference to me either way

The difference between an opinion and a belief is that an opinion can be informed and subject to revision upon acquisition of new knowledge. While
a belief does not have to be informed and can be virtually resistant to any knowledge that contradicts it. That is why I have no beliefs only opinions
Which god do you believe in?
 
I do not believe in God or in gods and neither do I believe in anything else
I have no reason at all to believe and refuse to consider it in any capacity
 
Makes sense to me, but I've seen people treating Occam's Razor as some kind of philosophical or even universal law instead of a heuristic.


Okay. If people sometimes think that way, then I suppose they do. And yes, while that thinking itself is incorrect, nevertheless your observation that they think in this manner would be a correct mapping of one possible route by which to move, in practice, towards an atheistic worldview.


Logically, yes, you would think that kind of rejection wouldn't lead to disbelief as such, but in practice, I think it's actually pretty common. The logical arguments all sound much more reasonable to someone who's become disillusioned. There was thread on here some time ago about how people became atheists and you might be surprised how often emotional reasons played their part.

I guess in some ways an indifferent or malevolent god might make more sense not less, at least in terms of epicurean thinking. But it's with good reason that Dawkins devotes a chapter of his God Delusion to try to paint the biblical god as monstrous.


That’s a very valid psychological insight.


I don't think it's the same paradox I'm referring to and perhaps paradox isn't quite the right word - maybe it's just circular reasoning. I guess for the purpose of demonstrating what I mean, I could paraphrase Huxley as saying "it is my faith that everybody should take it on faith that nobody should take anything on faith". I read what you said about intent, but I don't think it applies in the case of an "every man should" argument.


Like you say, nothing really “paradoxical” there.

As for “circular reasoning” : That could be one way of seeing this, sure, if we take Huxley to have meant “faith” exactly as we mean it today. My sense from those words is that the word “faith” was used informally (or perhaps archaically), and the ‘not having faith in things that one doesn’t have evidence for’ was in the nature of either declaration of intent, or else -- when, as you point out, directed towards the world at large -- in the nature of an exhortation. (Unless, as you suggest, it was an intentional witticism!)

But of course, those are details. And I wouldn’t want to beat this to death! The point is, there isn’t anything intrinsically fallacious or paradoxical about his idea, albeit the formulation or wording -- the troublesome use of that word, “faith”, that you were observant enough to catch on to -- may give us some pause.



You know, speaking generally, I suppose Skepticism per se was not really a thing back then, neither the word nor, perhaps, the concept: and it strikes me how close to Skepticism is Huxley’s conception of Agnosticism when he says these words : “ … it is wrong for a man to say he is certain of the objective truth of a proposition unless he can provide evidence which logically justifies that certainty. This is what agnosticism asserts and in my opinion, is all that is essential to agnosticism.”



But of course, while I’ve been batting away here on Huxley’s side, trying to make very clear exactly what Huxley himself meant to convey by this word he’s coined, we mustn’t forget that his particular nuance is, today, not the only (nor even, necessarily, the primary) meaning that the word carries in practice. There are many who self-describe as agnostic, who mean merely that they ‘do not know’ -- and plenty of people are taking great pains to point out that obvious fact in this thread -- so that, while this deeper understanding of Huxley’s conception does help us understand the wider context of the term, nevertheless, when actually discussing this idea with others, we still need to go back to trying to ascertain what some particular individual means when they use that word!
 
No. I repeat: I accept only Huxley’s definition of agnosticism included in the Cambridge Dictionary of Philosophy.
Summarizing: Agnosticism is the philosophical and religious attitude of those who claim that the existence of God can be neither proved nor disproved. Huxley wrote, “I neither affirm nor deny the immortality of man.” (Cambridge Dictionary of Philosophy).


This is strange : Why do you keep on repeating that over and over again?

“Huxley’s Agnsoticism” is, by definition, what Huxley himself meant by this term, Agnosticism, that he coined ; and I am trying to show you how your understanding of this is flawed, by quoting Huxley himself on this subject.

I have qualified that, what you say above, with what Huxley himself has directly said about Agnosticism : “ “ … it is wrong for a man to say he is certain of the objective truth of a proposition unless he can provide evidence which logically justifies that certainty. This is what agnosticism asserts and in my opinion, is all that is essential to agnosticism.”

Do you understand those words? Do you understand that it is Huxley himself who has said them? And do you understand that Huxley has said these words directly about his idea of Agnosticism?

In light of this, your slavish and unthinking adherence to one particular definition from one particular source, and your claim that that particular definition is the overridingly correct interpretation, is perplexing, to say the least. Especially when you are not able to furnish any justification for this claim, in light of the quotes I have presented.

You are free to “accept” whatever you want in your personal capacity, but in as much as you do this without justification and in the face of clear demonstration that your position is flawed, you must not expect us to take your personal choice very seriously.


You insist on including Huxley’s scientism/positivism in the definition. I disagree. Huxley positivism is the basis of Huxley’s agnosticism not a definitional characteristic of the word. If you include positivism as a feature of “agnosticism” you need invent another word to those that neither affirm nor deny that God exists but are not positivist.


Once again, do you not understand that it is Huxley himself who says, when he speaks of his Agnosticism, the word that he coined, that : “ “ … it is wrong for a man to say he is certain of the objective truth of a proposition unless he can provide evidence which logically justifies that certainty. This is what agnosticism asserts and in my opinion, is all that is essential to agnosticism.”

This is not just a bald statement of Huxley’s Positivism, but a direct qualification by the man himself about what he meant to convey by the word Agnosticism. Just read it again : do you not see the meaning of those words so clearly in front of you?

There certainly exist other connotations to this word in present-day usage (as I have myself been at pains to point out, all through) : but surely when it comes to Huxley’s Agnosticism, that is, when we speak of what Huxley meant by Agnosticism, it is bizarre to not let Huxley himself have the last word?

As for coining another word to convey this Positivistic nuance, well, that is precisely what Huxley did, isn’t it? That is precisely what the word Agnosticism was all about, as that quote of his clearly shows.

I am unable to comprehend your totally bizarre refusal to adhere to Huxley’s own qualifications when it comes to discussing his interpretation of the term he himself coined. I keep on showing you how you are wrong, and what is you do is simply keep on repeating, without justification and without being able to refute my arguments, that you “disagree”.

Again, your personal disagreement is your privilege, but in as much as it is made in the absence of justification, it is irrelevant and of no interest to anyone other than yourself.


This is unnecessary and confusing, because these people are also usually called “agnostic”. In philosophy, at least. I have not seen your answer to this objection in you long comment.


I find it amazing that you have “not seen” this answer, seeing that I have given this answer more than once, and have also clearly pointed out to you this answer in subsequent posts. I will now try, one last time, to explain to you the straightforward issue that you seem to have so much trouble understanding :

In English, words tend to take a life of their own. There are many words that have multiple meanings, and sometimes those meanings are at odds with one another ; indeed, at times, the same word carries two meanings that might actually carry wholly opposite meanings to each other.

Is this “confusing”, as you say? Absolutely, it can be confusing!

Is it “unnecessary”? There are two ways of looking at it : one POV is that it adds richness to the language ; and another is that indeed certain usages of certain words are unnecessary and do not help with clarity.

But regardless of the confusion they might create, and regardless of whether certain usages of some words may subjectively appear “unnecessary”, the fact is that the English language grows organically, and words meanings are what they are.

You cannot, by fiat, try to change or to limit word meanings just because you are uncomfortable with them.

I am amazed why you cannot comprehend this simple issue, and why you claim you have not seen this “answer”, when this has been so clearly explained to you so many times.


Perhaps I have lost it.


I wouldn’t have put it quite so plainly as that, but since you say it yourself, I have to agree : Yes, you do indeed seem to have “lost it”.


You write too much.


Methinks the problem is that you read too little ; understand little of what you do read ; and do not follow up on what little you do understand.

For instance : In my post #270, I had very clearly demonstrated your error in how you discussed Huxley’s Agnosticism. In your subsequent post #284, you clearly expressed regret at not having been able to go through that post, and you promised to go through it and address it in detail later on. Then again, in your post #305, you clarify that you wish to “refer to” my post #270 and its contents and, presumably, address the points raised there.

And yet you never do that, do you? You keep on saying you will “refer” to my post, but never actually do that! You still haven’t, thus far, “referred to” my post #270 (or if you have, then you have at least not addressed the arguments there that clearly demonstrate your error).

Given this, and given your justification-free repetition of your initial POV, do you see how your argumentation comes across of disingenuous?

Your antics remind me of another member here, two of whose long-running threads I follow with amusement (without myself participating there), who similarly keeps promising people that he will respond to their posts, and keeps on mentioning personal difficulties that keep him from responding right away, but who never does actually respond to those posts (or if he does, only glosses over them perfunctorily), and then returns back to repeating his inanities as if no arguments had been raised against them at all.

I am sorry, I don’t see this discussion of ours going anywhere, if you will keep trying to avoid my arguments and keep trying to somehow ignore them and gloss over them, and go back to parroting your own unthinking ideas. While I have no doubt I will, with profit and with enjoyment, listen to you and engage with what you might have to say on other threads, from this thread I’m afraid I’d like to withdraw.

Having started already to respond to you, I will do you the courtesy of putting down my response now to the rest of this post of yours, but I ask you to excuse me if, for the space of this thread, I do not waste my time engaging any further with this infantile and content-free discussion that I somehow find myself having gotten sucked into, and that is proving to be neither instructive nor remotely pleasurable.


Absolutely not. We are not speaking of moral intentions of an individual. We are speaking of how to know. This is the classical difference between practical rules and rules of knowledge. The burden of proof is not a practical rule but a condition for knowledge of truth. In this case, God’s existence. Moral purposes need no prior demonstration. Truth claims, yes.

Nobody has suggested that a criticism against “agnostic” fideism would be a criticism against “agnosticism” as a whole. I never spoke of criticism but definitions only. In any case, the criticism against fideism would affect this particular kind of agnosticism, not Huxley’s agnosticism which is very different as I have explained in my previous comment. A criticism against Lance Amstrong is not a criticism against Jacques Anquetil.

NOTE: I put into quotation marks “agnostic” fideist because it is a forced use of the word and needs some precisions. I think you had see.


But that is exactly what you did do!

Please go back and refer to your post #273. There you introduce this new creature, the fideist, whom you also qualify with the epithet “agnostic” : and then you go on to attempt to show, in that post, how, speaking of this “agnostic fidesit”, “If your belief has no justification, it is irrational and cannot even be expressed with meaning … This is untenable from the point of view of (Scientism) [that is, of Positivism).” Those were your very words in that thread!

This is clearly what you are trying to do there : You introduce the Fideist ; you next say that this Fideist is an “Agnostic Theist” or “Agnostic Fideist” -- using one particular meaning of the word ‘Agnostic’ -- and then you try to show the shortcomings in the Fidesit's position, show how Fideism does not measure up to Positivism.

You don’t say anything further, but surely the implication is that you’re hoping that this refutation of Fideism will somehow rub off on Agnosticism, just because you have tagged on the adjective Agnostic on to the Fideist?

If this is not your implication, why then do you even raise this out and out non sequitur?

This Fideism gambit of yours is no more than a red herring ; and when I call you out on this non sequitur, then instead of clearly explaining yourself, what you do is simply pretend that you had not said what you so clearly did say in your post #273! I am not sure how to respond to this kind of apparently disingenuous discussion strategy, other than by simply pointing this out clearly and showing this up for what it is.


The example of black holes is not correct. If some scientist has a scientific theory about black holes, he would need some evidence about the existence of black holes and this evidence would be debatable in terms of scientific theories. Even as a hypothesis there will be some arguments to present. A scientist never would affirm that cosmic unicorns exist and then claim: “Prove that cosmic unicorns don’t exist”. He would be the laughingstock of his colleagues.

I have no idea of what is a “pocket universe” but if this is a debatable thing I suppose that someone has presented it in such a way that we can know where is a “pocket universe” and what is doing. If this is not the case I would say that it is a big silly thing. And the same is valid for gods and pink dragons. Unless we are speaking of a Sci-Fi novel, of course.


You seem completely oblivious to how blatant an instance of special pleading this is. Your understanding of the burden of proof is flawed; and your desperate attempts to somehow fit on the argument to your pre-conceived ‘solution’ is amusing.

You remind me of a schoolboy who has cheated by copying the answers to his sums from his friend, and who then pretends outrage when the teacher catches him out on his inability to explain his particular method for deriving his answers ; and so keeps protesting loudly to the teacher that his particular answers are correct!

We all know that your Fairy Queen and your Pink Dragon do not exist. Most of us, including I myself, agree with you that God -- as represented by specific ideas like Yahweh, and Allah, and Indra, and Ra, and Zeus -- do not exist either. You get no marks for copying your answer to this obvious question from elsewhere! You are telling us nothing new by saying that these things do not exist.

The point is, how do you know these things do not exist? Not you personally, but how do we, in general, know this? How do we know that a certain thing or idea exists (or is plausible), or does not exist (or is not plausible), be it black holes, or pocket universes, or bacteria, or certain specific God-ideas?

And the answer is two-fold : First, when you posit something, you need to back it up. Therefore, if someone posits a particular God-idea, or black holes, or pocket universes, then the onus, the burden, is on them to show us clearly how what they are saying makes sense. If they are not able to do this, we are free to reject their claim. This is the equivalent of Soft Atheism.

And second, we may ourselves roll up our sleeves and get down to actively disproving some particular idea : be it black holes, or pocket universes, or some specific God-ideas. If we declare that such do not exist, then we take upon ourselves the burden of proof to back up our claim : and it is then we who need to show reasons why others should accept our claim that black holes, or certain God-ideas, or pocket universes, do not exist. And this is the equivalent of Hard Atheism.

(I will go out on a limb here and, despite my general ignorance about many things legal -- and therefore the possibility that there could be technical objections, in law, to what I am saying here -- present this analogy that occurs to me : I believe this is the broad principle based on which it is the prosecution that needs to prove the guilt of the defendant ; and if they are not able to do this adequately, then the Court rules that the defendant is not guilty ; never is it demanded that the defendant prove their innocence, and nor does the Court rule that they are actually innocent. While in practice “not guilty” and “innocent” mean the same thing -- just as in practice Soft Atheism and Hard Atheism mean the same thing, namely, Atheism, or rejection of some God idea -- nevertheless there is a nuance differentiating the two positions, that speaks to how we have come to this conclusion.)

Does this mean that we are now called upon to actively disprove every fantastic formulation that people keep coming up with? The obvious answer to that question is : Only if you want to! No one is forcing us to!

If we don’t want to engage with the issue, then sure, we can simply see that not enough evidence has been presented to accept something, and we reject the idea, Soft-Atheism style. And if we find ourselves drawn to the subject -- no matter what the subject, be it the existence of bacteria, or the existence of black holes, or the existence of pocket universes, or the existence of particular God-ideas -- then we are free to try to actively disprove these ideas, Hard-Atheism style.

This only speaks to the method used to reject some idea, not to the strength of the rejection itself. The Soft Atheist can be just as robustly atheistic as the Hard Atheist. The difference lies in how they happen to have arrived at their particular position.
 
I don't understand. "Evidence in itself" about what?

Evidence for non-existence.

For a basic model, I'll use the example of the pencil & paper game "Battleship", but for the purpose of this model, the rules are changed, so there's just a 5x1 battleship and a player can choose not to place it at all.

At the start of the game, we have a blank 10x10 grid and no evidence as to whether there is or is not a battleship. According to what you were saying, without any other factors, would the burden of proof would be on a person claiming there was a battleship? I'd see the same, equal burden on a person claiming there was no battleship.

A hit is obvious and clear positive evidence of the existence of the battleship, but a single miss is essentially a lack of evidence (we looked here and didn't find anything). However, each addition miss is building up the evidence, slightly reducing the probability that there is a battleship on the grid or increasing the chance of finding it if it's there. Strategically placed misses can eventually entirely rule out the possibility of there being a battleship, because we know there's nowhere left a 5x1 shape could fit. This is what I mean by saying how a lack of evidence can be evidence in itself.

Why does this not also apply to dragons, fairies, and gods?

Well, potentially maybe it could. The key issue is "when evidence should demonstrably be expected".

So, for example, the Loch Ness Monster fits pretty well with the basic battleship model. It's a large, but limited body of water, so, using sonar or some such technology, and mapping out every possible hiding place, a definitive conclusion could be reached.

With gods and fairies and the like, we first have to include anything that could fit the definition we're looking for and then know where to look. If what is being proposed is inter-dimensional, metaphysical, outside of the universe or just aware we're looking and able to avoid being found by any method we have, things could get a little tricky.
 
Well, potentially maybe it could. The key issue is "when evidence should demonstrably be expected".

So, for example, the Loch Ness Monster fits pretty well with the basic battleship model. It's a large, but limited body of water, so, using sonar or some such technology, and mapping out every possible hiding place, a definitive conclusion could be reached.

With gods and fairies and the like, we first have to include anything that could fit the definition we're looking for and then know where to look. If what is being proposed is inter-dimensional, metaphysical, outside of the universe or just aware we're looking and able to avoid being found by any method we have, things could get a little tricky.
IMO, "evidence should demonstrably be expected" when anyone makes the claim that something "actually exists". I have yet to meet a theist that doesn't claim their god actually exists. Most also claim their belief is their knowledge of that actual existence. If their god is inter-dimensional, metaphysical or outside of the universe then they have no evidence to claim it actually exists. I know it's a belief/knowledge conflation thing but they shouldn't be given a Get Out of Rationality Free Card.
 
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This is strange : Why do you keep on repeating that over and over again?
Because you won't listen to me.
Long comments ago I said you that I wasn’t going to start a debate about Huxley. I stated that I was going to limit myself to the definition of agnosticism that I repeat again and again without many success for the moment.
Agnosticism is the philosophical and religious attitude of those who claim that the existence of God can be neither proved nor disproved. Huxley wrote, “I neither affirm nor deny the immortality of man.” (Cambridge Dictionary of Philosophy).
And this other:
Agnosticism is the philosophical view that neither affirms that God exists nor affirms that God does not exist.* On the other hand, atheism is the view that God does not exist.* (http://www.iep.utm.edu/skept-th/).

I have given some justifications:

Huxley’s agnosticism is based on his positivism. There are another agnostics that don’t have the same support: relativists, for example. That is to say, all of them maintain the same idea: the existence of God can be neither proved nor disproved and yhey neither affirm that God exists nor affirm that God does not exist. Therefore, it is useful to call them with a single word. I have choose a classical word: “agnosticism”. You can choose what you like an we can continue discussing under the assumption that each of us know how the other use this word.
Do you understand those words?
Don't get conceited with me, please. Of course I understand what you say and quote. I’m dedicated to philosophy more than thirty years and I have found much more complicated texts that Huxley’s.

Instead to give lessons of philosophy, It would be preferable that you clarify your personal vocabulary on the categories I have mentioned. That's what we're trying to discuss. I think.
Your antics remind me of another member here...
Excuse me, but why don't you stop preaching instead of getting to the point?
This only speaks to the method used to reject some idea, not to the strength of the rejection itself. The Soft Atheist can be just as robustly atheistic as the Hard Atheist. The difference lies in how they happen to have arrived at their particular position.
Well, it seem the issue at last!

Since you are not very exact I suppose that you call “Soft Atheist” to someone that states that he neither affirms nor denies that God exists because any proposition has to be sustained by (scientific) evidence.

Obviously, this statement has to be equally valid for any metaphysical, magical, esoteric, mythic or fantastic entities. Therefore, the Soft Atheist doesn’t deny that unicorns and astral trips exist.

This is a hard disregard of the argument by the burden of proof, because the burden of proof ever lies on existential affirmative propositions, never negative. In law it is the prosecutor who should present the charges, and the accused the discharge after. Justice courts are not science, but it is a useful simile.

Therefore, either the agnostic is an absolute relativist —and this lead to other difficulties— or he is against an usual rational rule, and this seems a hard contradiction for someone that introduces himself as a defendant of science.

Agnostic’s contradictions don’t worry me too much as long as we conclude that the existence of God has the same degree of probability than centaurs, astral trips and David the Gnome. This is to say, practically zero. This is the main point. Agnosticism or atheism, hard or soft are some additional precisions with secondary issues.
 

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