• Quick note - the problem with Youtube videos not embedding on the forum appears to have been fixed, thanks to ZiprHead. If you do still see problems let me know.

Deeper than primes

Status
Not open for further replies.
The Man said:
Oh and making your definition of “complete” the same definition (by essentially simply replacing the word “infinite” with “complete”)
I replaced “infinite” with “incomplete”, please read it again.

The Man said:
The simple statement that ‘only “infinite” sets are “complete”” in your notions states clearly and explicitly what you mean without the pretence of thinking you’re defining a different aspect with the same definition you use for “infinite”.
I agree with you.

It can be done as follows:

C is a set.

Axiom:

For all x in C, if all x in C are picked AND no x can be picked twice, then C is infinite AND incomplete.

Theorem: If C is infinite, then C is incomplete.

Proof: derived directly from the axiom.
 
Last edited:
Is this a revelation to you that {1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2} and {2, 1} actually have the same elements in terms of type?

Being the same in terms of type is based on the ability to distinguish between them, where redundancy and uncertainty have 0 value.

So according to your reasoning "the same" is actually limited to 0-Uncertainy x 0-Rerundancy case.

I see you are again using phrases that you are unable to define. Be that as it may, real Mathematics continues unharmed despite its ignorance of all the nonsense posed by Doronetics.
 
The axiom of incompleteness:

For all x in C, if all x in C are picked AND no x can be picked twice, then C is incomplete.

Either this is an attempt to define the term, incomplete, in which case it is not an axiom, or it lacks a definition for incomplete. Either way, it fails.

By the way, I find it amazingly curious that you have ridiculed the upside-down A's that anyone else uses, but you are perfectly happy to use them (incorrectly) yourself.

You still haven't explained why 17 cannot be picked twice from the set of integers (even after all the other elements have been picked).


I replaced “infinite” with “incomplete”, please read it again.

More word shifting? You need to define what you mean by incomplete. You need to define what you mean by to pick.
 
Last edited:
I see you are again using phrases that you are unable to define. Be that as it may, real Mathematics continues unharmed despite its ignorance of all the nonsense posed by Doronetics.
I see you are again using only objects that have 0-Ucertainty x 0-Rudundancy , and as a result you do not distinguish between,
for example {1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2} and {2, 1}.

No wonder that you can't get http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7593948&postcount=16389 .
 
Last edited:
EDIT:
Either this is an attempt to define the term, incomplete, in which case it is not an axiom, or it lacks a definition for incomplete. Either way, it fails.

By the way, I find it amazingly curious that you have ridiculed the upside-down A's that anyone else uses, but you are perfectly happy to use them (incorrectly) yourself.
You simply do not understand that "for all" is actually not satisfied if (all x in C are picked) AND (no x can be picked twice).

Let's upgrade it:

For all x in C, if (all x in C are already picked) AND (no x can be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.


jsfisher said:
You still haven't explained why 17 cannot be picked twice from the set of integers (even after all the other elements have been picked)
jsfisher said:
More word shifting? You need to define what you mean by incomplete. You need to define what you mean by to pick.
jsfisher,

1) How exactly you are using a phrase like "You still haven't explained why 17 cannot be picked twice from the set of integers" without understanding what a "pick" is?

2) Incompleteness, in the case of sets (which are based only on 0-Uncertainty x 0-Redundancy case), is the non-satisfactory of the term "all".
 
Last edited:
EDIT:

You simply do not understand that "for all" is actually not satisfied if (all x in C are picked) AND (no x can be picked twice).

Let's upgrade it:

For all x in C, if (all x in C are already picked) AND (no x can be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.




jsfisher,

1) How exactly you are using a phrase like "You still haven't explained why 17 cannot be picked twice from the set of integers" without understanding what a "pick" is?

2) Incompleteness, in the case of sets (which are based only on 0-Uncertainty x 0-Redundancy case), is the non-satisfactory of the term "all".



Ah! The circle begins to close.
 
Ah! The circle begins to close.
And actual close (in terms of set of existing distinct objects) is possible only if the amount of C existing members is finite, as seen in the following diagram:

4297878664_e6288d244a_z.jpg
 
Last edited:
And actual close (in terms of set of existing distinct objects) is possible only if the amount of C existing members is finite, as seen in the following diagram:

[qimg]http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4039/4297878664_e6288d244a_z.jpg?zz=1[/qimg]

What you have there is a load of balls.
 
What you have there is a load of balls.
If there is a finite amount of points along them, then they are closed balls, otherwise they are unclosed balls.

Actually what I wish to show is that verbal_symbolic skills, expressed as:

"For all x in C, if (all x in C are already picked) AND (no x can be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete."

can't be understood without using also visual_spatial skills, expressed as:

4297878664_e6288d244a_z.jpg


and vise versa.

In other words, verbal_symbolic AND visual_spatial skills are needed in order to understand (in this case) infinite collections of distinct objects.

Also please look at http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7587585&postcount=16372 .

EDIT:

Let's improve the verbal_symbolic expression (it cannot be done if the visual_spatial skills are not used in the "background"):

C is a set.

If (x in C is picked) AND (all not-x in C are picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.
 
Last edited:
There is no requirement to not pick again the first picked object, if all the objects are picked.

For example, it can be done in the case of a non-empty finite set.

But it can't be done in the case of a non-empty infinite set.

This is exactly what the axiom of infinite set asserts:

For all x in C, if all x in C are picked AND no x can be picked twice, then C is infinite.

The Man, you simply replied only to a picked part of what I wrote, by ignoring the next part, here it is again:



and you ignored:


Next time please read the whole post before you reply.


Nope I didn't ignore it, but evidently you would like to simply ignore your

The n pick is any member that is not any of the previously picked members.

requirement for any finite set. So for any finite set you could pick the same member as many times as you like but can not for an infinite set. Making your excluding pervious picks requirement conditional on whether the set is finite or not simply means that your purported " axiom of infinite set" reduces to "If set C is not finite or empty then it is infinite"

Took you 20 some odd years for you to come up with that?


I replaced “infinite” with “incomplete”, please read it again.

Indeed you did, so now finite sets are "complete" since you do not exclude pervious 'picks' from the current 'pick' for them?

I agree with you.

It can be done as follows:

C is a set.

Axiom:

For all x in C, if all x in C are picked AND no x can be picked twice, then C is infinite AND incomplete.

Theorem: If C is infinite, then C is incomplete.

Proof: derived directly from the axiom.

Again since your exclusion of pervious picks is conditional on the set being infinite then this reduces to " If set C is not finite or empty then it is infinite and incomplete".


Took you 20 some odd years for you to come up with that?


Though as jsfisher notes you still need to define what you mean by " incomplete" as currently, for you, it would simply mean infinite.
 
No problem, it can done as follows:

C is a set.

Axiom:

For all x in C, if all x in C are picked AND no x can be picked twice, then C is infinite AND incomplete.
You can take any axiom and assert that it is a theorem. If your assertion is correct, you will be able to prove or disprove the theorem. Your statements usually don't give anyone the opportunity to take this approach, coz their construction is rendered in terms taken from Doronetics, which are left undefined or poorly defined. You should call your ideas propositions to avoid misrepresentation of terms.

How do you feel about the following change?

C is an infinite set.
Proposition: For all x in C, if all x in C are picked AND no x can be picked twice, then C is incomplete.

The above change gives someone a legitimate opportunity to declare the proposition a false statement with the obligatory follow up of proving it.

Your version defines C as a set, so it can be any set, and that includes the finite version. Be that the case, how can the process of selection without replacement turn finite set C into infinite set C? :confused:

(You know, that question is actually a potent weapon that can kill the adjective "Almighty," which God sometimes wears, dead and done with.)
 
So for any finite set you could pick the same member as many times as you like but can not for an infinite set.
More than once, yes.

It is a conclusion derived from the following axiom:

If (x in C is picked) AND (everything but x, in C is picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.

Yep, just back to Doron's old habit of trying to define sets in terms of lists
Please look at the axiom above, and explicitly show how it is related only to lists.

" If set C is not finite or empty then it is infinite and incomplete".
This is circular reasoning, since you have used "not finite" under "if" , and "infinite" under "then".

Took you 20 some odd years for you to come up with that?
It took you less than a minute to come up with this circular reasoning.
 
Last edited:
Yep, just back to Doron's old habit of trying to define sets in terms of lists
Have you missed the unstated definition implied throughout?

SET - { } and anything that fits in there.

:D
 
Last edited:
If your assertion is correct, you will be able to prove or disprove the theorem.
An axiom is a true assertion if it does not lead into contradiction.

Please show the contradiction in the following axiom:

If (x in C is picked) AND (everything but x, in C is picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.
 
Last edited:
An axiom is a true assertion if it does not lead into contradiction.

Please show the contradiction in the following axiom:

If (x in C is picked) AND (everything but x, in C is picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.

I won't show you anything, coz I don't accept your definition of "axiom."

Your proposition includes an intriguing feature though in "infinite AND incomplete." Since there is no restriction on C, the intricacy lies in

*, !, %, &, K, anythingyoucanimagine, $, anythingyoucan'timagine, ...

being an infinite and incomplete collection made of "everything but x," and "x" with no clue what that x might be.

Doron, do you regard

0, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 9, 10, ...

as an incomplete infinite collection of naturals?
 
Last edited:
I won't show you anything, coz I don't accept your definition of "axiom."

Your proposition includes an intriguing feature though in "infinite AND incomplete." Since there is no restriction on C, the intricacy lies in

*, !, %, &, K, anythingyoucanimagine, $, anythingyoucan'timagine, ...

being an infinite and incomplete collection made of "everything but x," and "x" with no clue what that x might be.

Again, what I wish to show is that verbal_symbolic skills, expressed, for example, as:

"C is a set."

"If (x in C is picked) AND (everything but x, in C is picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete."

can't be understood without using also visual_spatial skills, expressed, for example, as:

4297878664_e6288d244a_z.jpg


and vise versa.

In other words, verbal_symbolic AND visual_spatial skills are needed in order to understand (in this case) infinite collections of distinct objects.

Also please look at http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7587585&postcount=16372 .

epix said:
Doron, do you regard

0, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 9, 10, ...

as an incomplete infinite collection of naturals?
Yes, this is exactly what follows from this axiom (by the way, not everyone agree that 0 is a natural number).

epix said:
being an infinite and incomplete collection made of "everything but x," and "x" with no clue what that x might be.
x is some distinct member of set C (no matter if C is finite or not).

epix said:
Since there is no restriction on C
There is restriction on C: All its members are distinct.
 
Last edited:
Originally Posted by epix
Doron, do you regard

0, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 9, 10, ...

as an incomplete infinite collection of naturals?

Yes, this is exactly what follows from this axiom (by the way, not everyone agree that 0 is a natural number).

Why do you regard those few naturals as an infinite incomplete collection? Is it because 4, 5, and 6 are missing from the line up? Look again.

0, 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 9, 10, 4, 5, 6, ...

I didn't say that the infinite collection was ordered; that the naturals were organized in the ascending order.

The standard definition of a collection of items called the set allows the members of the set be organized in no particular order. Your definition of the set is very likely different. Considering set

F = {apple, orange, banana, lemon},

I'm not really keen on understanding the mechanism that Doronetics uses to organize the members of F into a proper order. I'm pretty happy with the fact that I can count the members to arrive at |F| = 4 and with the fact that one of the members contains lots of citric acid.
 
Last edited:
Why do you regard those few naturals as an infinite incomplete collection?
Because you used ", ..." at the end of some given natural numbers, which means that the given set is infinite.

Since it is infinite it is also incomplete, according to my axiom.

I didn't say that the infinite collection was ordered; that the naturals were organized in the ascending order.
Order has no significance among the members of a given set (where a set is a collection of distinct objects).

The standard definition of a collection of items called the set allows the members of the set be organized in no particular order. Your definition of the set is very likely different.
Wrong, it uses the same notion about the insignificance of order among distinct members of a given set.

If you look at the diagram in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=7601080&postcount=16418 you can see that the points are not picked in some particular order, whether the collection of distinct points is finite, or not.

EDIT:

Again.

As for no order, for example, (AB,AB) really has no order (which is not the same as "order has no significance") exactly because the considered framework is under superposition of identities of 2-Uncertainty x 2-Redundancy Distinction Tree.

According to this example (without a loss of generality) sets are based on Distinction State (A,B) = (B,A) under F(1,1).

Please be aware of the fact that (A,B) is just a particular case of Frame (1,1) under 2-Redundancy x 2-Uncertainty Distinction Tree, as follows:

Code:
(AB,AB) (AB,A)  (AB,B)  (AB)    (A,A)   (B,B)   (A,B)   (A)     (B)     ()

A * *   A * *   A * .   A * .   A * *   A . .   A * .   A * .   A . .   A . .
  | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |     | |
B *_*   B *_.   B *_*   B *_.   B ._.   B *_*   B ._*   B ._.   B *_.   B ._.

(2,2) = (AB,AB)
(2,1) = (AB,A),(AB,B)
(2,0)=  (AB)
[COLOR="magenta"][B](1,1)[/B][/COLOR] = (A,A),(B,B), [COLOR="magenta"][B](A,B)[/B][/COLOR]
(1,0)=  (A),(B)
(0,0)=  ()

Since the members of {A,B} are based on the particular case of DS (A,B) under F (1,1), and since {A,B} has 0-Uncertainy and 0-Redundancy, then its members are pick-able no matter if {A,B} = {B,A} (or in other words, order has no significance).


C is a set (where set is a collection of distinct objects, which is not empty if it has pick-able objects).

Here is my axiom:

If (x in C is picked) AND (everything but x, in C is picked) AND (x can't be picked twice), then C is infinite AND incomplete.

As can be seen, no particular order is involved here.

Again, more about order:

Let's assume that a given collection of distinct objects (known also as set) has no order.

In that case non of its objects can be picked and used, because any attempt to pick something from a given collection of distinct objects, must be the first pick, and if there is the first pick, then there is the second pick, etc ...

In other words, if order does not exist among collections of distinct objects, then their distinct objects are not available.

For example, the expression "647+23" does not exist, since the objects of the collection of natural numbers are not available.

So, "No order" is not the same as "Order has no significance".
 
Last edited:
Status
Not open for further replies.

Back
Top Bottom