doronshadmi
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Mar 15, 2008
- Messages
- 13,320
An inverse of P(N) diagonal <0,1> form exists in P(P(N)), an inverse of P(P(N)) diagonal <0,1> form exists in P(P(P(N))), etc. ... ad infinitum, where the set of all powersets does not exist ( please look again at http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=6800559&postcount=14053 ).Prove it, then. Should be easy if everything is so self-evident to you.
By the way, are there more, less, or the same number (I use that term loosely) of elements in your list as there are 0's and 1's in each list item?
(The correct answer, under your latest set of assumptions, is more. And just like the case with 3 bits of 8 list items, the inverse of the diagonal does in fact exist in the list...just not in the first three. Not everything that's self-evident is the truth.)
In other words, given any set or powerset (whether it is finite or not) there is an inverse of the diagonal of that set or powerset, that exists not in the range of the given set or powerset, and since the set of all powersets does not exists we can conclude (by explicitly provide a <0,1> form that is not in the range of any given set or powerset) that any given set or power set is incomplete.
A self evident truth does not need any proof.Prove it, then.
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