doronshadmi
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Mar 15, 2008
- Messages
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You mean the three lines which make up the triangle, in two dimensions?
No, I mean a one closed 1-dim element.
You mean the three lines which make up the triangle, in two dimensions?
Follow the line.
No, I mean a one closed 1-dim element.
"I don't know what you mean by 'glory,'" Alice said.
Humpty Dumpty smiled contemptuously. "Of course you don't--till I tell you. I meant, 'there's a nice knock-down argument for you!'"
"But 'glory' doesn't mean 'a nice knock-down argument,'" Alice objected.
"When I use a word," Humpty Dumpty said, in a rather scornful tone, "it means just what I choose it to mean--neither more nor less."
So you have a problem to understend a closed 1-dim element, where only length is considered.Lol,you call yourself a mathematician,yet you don't know the difference between one and two dimensions? Please tell me that this has all been an elaborate joke.
This is a corrected version of post (http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=5694975&postcount=8932)
No The Man, by using the old knowledge that is found in Wkipedia on this interesting subject, you simply block your mind to novel notions of the discussed subject.
In order to see how your mind is blocked to novel notions, let us use again Koch’s fractal.
We start by a 1-dim element that has a triangle shape of length 1 with 3 equal angles.
Now we bend in the outside direction each side of the triangle in its 1/3 middle length, by keeping the same proportion of the initial triangle.
As a result, length 1 of the 1-dim element is not changed, but the closest circumference, which is around that bended 1-dim, becomes smaller.
Infinitely many bended levels do to change the fact that the 1-dim has length 1, or in other words, the shrinked circumference can’t be a point, because if it becomes a point, we have lost our 1-dim element of length 1.
If we insist that the circumference is a point (which is the limit point in the middle of the area that is closed by the bended 1-dim element) and the bended 1-dim is still found, then we actually say that 1=0.
The only solution that keeps length 1 of the bended 1-dim element, and also deals with infinitely many bended levels, is the solution where the circumference around the bended 1-dim element of length 1, can’t reach the limit , which is actually an 0-dim.
By using this novel notion of the infinite collection, we understand better why, for example, the mass of a shrinked star increases, but it does not become a point even if it is compressed by infinitely many scale levels.
I do not think that this novel view is achieved if we insist to keep the old notions of Limit AND infinite (and complete) collection of bended levels.
So you have a problem to understend a closed 1-dim element, where only length is considered.
How boring.
EDIT:The Man said:If “length 1 of the 1-dim element is not changed” then it’s circumference doesn’t become “smaller”.
Again we see how standard Math does not have the tools to deal with real complexity.
All we see is that you do not have the tools to deal even with simple concepts in math.
Really, please use your standard tools in order to explain how the length of a given Koch fractal (that is based on non-stretched 1-dim element) which is bended upon infinitely many levels, saves its length, where circumference of the smallest circle around it, becomes smaller but > then 0 (otherwise the Koch's fractal length is changed to 0, and we do not find infinitely many bended levels that are based on the invariant length of the non-starched 1-dim closed element).
By the axiom of infinity if n is a member of N then n+1 is a member of N, and as a result N is inherently an incomplete collection of distinct things.
The Man,
Here are the results of the experiment:
[qimg]http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4070/4417179545_d4e9c86236_o.jpg[/qimg]
Each Koch's fractal...
...has the same length as the triangle above, yet we have an infinite convergent series of circles, where within each one of them there is the invariant length of Koch's fractal, which is > 0.
If this convergent series has the value of the limit point, then the Koch's fractal has 0 length, which is impossible.
Conclusion: Since the length of Koch's fractal > 0 and it is invariant upon infinitely many bended levels, then the convergent series of circles must be incomplete because it can't have the value of the limit, which is 0.
No jsfisher.The Axiom of Infinity is far more elegant and precise than that. In perhaps its most general formulation, it looks like this:
[latex]$$$ \exists x \ (\{ \} \in x \wedge \forall y \in x \ (S\in x)) $$$ [/latex]
where Sis the successor function for the domain under consideration.
The direct consequence of the Axiom of Infinity, though, a consequence you seem to ignore, is there exists a set of all the integers.
Thank you jsfisher for providing once again the needed proof of why your school of thought has the exact properties of a dogmatic sect.Ahem. None of those are fractals.
Again, those are not fractals. The only fractal would be at the limit of the construction, where such a limit to exist. The construction would be far more interesting without the extra constraint on circumference length, though.
Proof by crude drawing? Care to add any rigor to this hand-waving? Be that as it may, do you have any understanding whatsoever of the impact fractals have had on the meaning of length and dimension?
Conclusion: Doron doesn't understand. You just throw in unnecessary muddle (like the Koch Curve in this case) to obscure the fact you haven't a clue what you are talking about.
You still cannot distinguish between the terms incomplete and infinite, can you? That alone makes your whole presentation trivial and trite.
Ahem. Yes they are fractals (from the second form).Ahem. None of those are fractals.
Yes.jsfisher said:Be that as it may, do you have any understanding whatsoever of the impact fractals have had on the meaning of length and dimension?
It is a rigorous drawing that is used as a proof without words (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_without_words) (it is generalized to any self similarity over scales).jsfisher said:Proof by crude drawing?
Proof by crude drawing? Care to add any rigor to this hand-waving? Be that as it may, do you have any understanding whatsoever of the impact fractals have had on the meaning of length and dimension?
Expecting him to understand the implications of something more advanced when he can't manage the basics seems a little unfair.a 1-dim element that has a triangle shape of length 1 with 3 equal angles.
Well, dimension is one of the terms Doron clearly does not understand.
Expecting him to understand the implications of something more advanced when he can't manage the basics seems a little unfair.
Thank you jsfisher for providing once again the needed proof of why your school of thought has the exact properties of a dogmatic sect.
You are doing the job for me, in order to expose your limited notions infront of the public.
This is the wrong crowd for such observations. Actually I think there is no crowd for this or for your ideas altogether. People who do not know enough math don't really know what you are talking and I guess don't really care... people who do know math understand right away that you don't really know what you are talking about and don't really care. The remaining are probably posting on this thread, but you don't really care...
Your obsolete knowledge of this subject is the exact reason behind your inability to get any of my 3 posts above.sympathic said:People who do not know enough math
So you don't have any meaninful thing to say about http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=5696182&postcount=8949 , http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=5696845&postcount=8951 and http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=5699060&postcount=8955 .
Your obsolete knowledge of this subject is the exact reason behind your inability to get any of my 3 posts above.