doronshadmi
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Mar 15, 2008
- Messages
- 13,320
No.So squares are round?
There is an "unlimited life" beyond the matrix.
No.So squares are round?
I do not look only at each case separately as the step-by-step reasoning does ( please see the results of only step-by-step reasoning on jsfisher's mind in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=6921871&postcount=14391 ).You're the one who seems to be applying a step-by-step approach, adding members to a set one by one. When the set is defined, the members are in it, they don't have to be looked at one at a time to decide if they are in or out.
A set is an ever increasing mathematical object.
Your only step-by-step reasoning does not help to get it.
VeryThere is a finite set |S|= 4 that increments itself diagonally and step by step in order to "prove" that A={1, 2, 3, 4} is incomplete:
1st step: 1 <=> 0001
2nd step: 2 <=> 0010
3rd step: 3 <=> 0011
4th step: 4 <=> 0100
(S|InvDiag {0,0,1,0} = {1,1,0,1}) => (1101bin = 13dec) => (A={1, 2, 3, 4} is incomplete)
Note: That's good. Who cares about bad luck 13 in the set, right?
The question mark is hardly permanent; it is replaced by 1 due to the apex of Pascal Triangle.It is a "permanently out of the (X^2) box" reasoning.
EDIT:
Please try to understand the permanent question mark (which is a present continuous state) at the top of the following diagram:
[qimg]http://farm6.static.flickr.com/5214/5480734023_6482feb9e5_b.jpg[/qimg]
...where the set of all powersets does not exist.
It is not about (S (X^2)) < (P(S) (2^X)).
It is about the bijection between any given natural number and any given P(S) member
...
there is a bijection between natural numbers and any P(S), where the set of all powersets does not exist.
N P(S)
------+--------
? <-> {}
? <-> {A}
Any given collection is under the laws of probability.
EDIT:
Please try to understand the permanent question mark (which is a present continuous state) at the top of the following diagram:
[qimg]http://farm6.static.flickr.com/5214/5480734023_6482feb9e5_b.jpg[/qimg]
jsfisher, the permanent question mark at the top of the considerd diagram is timeless and therefore has nothing to do with before (past) and after (future).
The Man and you still do not grasp the accurate meaning of present continuous.
Your problem with the question mark exists, coz your graphic rendering shown on the diagram is topological nonsense. One way to partition a circle with a binary scheme looks like this.Please try to understand the permanent question mark (which is a present continuous state) at the top of the following diagram:
[qimg]http://farm6.static.flickr.com/5214/5480734023_6482feb9e5_b.jpg[/qimg]
They are different notations of the same thing, and as a clearly show, there is a bijection bewteen the set of natural numbers and any given set of different objects, whether the amount of the objects is finite or not.Of course not. What you wrote, (S (X^2)) < (P(S) (2^X)), is gibberish. However, it is all about |S| < |P(S)|.
Wrong. I explicitly demonstrate a bijection between the set of natural number and any given set of different objects, whether the amount of the objects is finite or not.No, that's wrong, too. There of course is a bijection between any given natural number and any given element of a set (power set or otherwise). That's one of those trivial things that isn't worth dwelling on.
Since you have trouble keeping up, Doron, I'll demonstrate. Let A be a natural number, and let B be an element of some set. A bijection between A and B would be, wait for it.....wait for it....wait for it, A <-> B.
However, your statement is completely wrong if you meant there was a bijection between the natural numbers (not just one element) and the power set of any infinite set (not just one element).
Ok, this is yet a different statement of your thesis. It's still wrong. Let's take for example S = {A}. It's power set P(S) = {{},A}. Show us, Doron, a bijection between the natural numbers and P(S). Here, I'll start you out with this table. Just fill in the left-hand side to complete the bijection:
Code:N P(S) ------+-------- ? <-> {} ? <-> {A}
N P(S)
------+--------
1 <-> {}
2 <-> {A}
The ? is permanent exactly because being binominal is the probability of itself.What “laws of probability” are you referring to?
Please try to understand that “the permanent question mark” only represent your “present continuous” and apparently preferred “state” because you never try to learn anything and just choose instead to make up whatever self-contradictory, coloring book and connect the dots nonsense you want.
The Man you still do not grasp the accurate meaning of increasing as a present continuous.Doron you still do not grasp the accurate meaning of increasing.
The ? is permanent exactly because being binominal is the probability of itself.The question mark is hardly permanent; it is replaced by 1 due to the apex of Pascal Triangle.
20 = 1 = 1
21 = 2 = 1 + 1
22 = 4 = 1 + 2 + 1
23 = 8 = 1 + 3 + 3 + 1
24 =16 = 1 + 4 + 6 + 4 + 1
25 =32 = 1 + 5 +10 +10 +5 + 1
and so on.
2n can be binomially distributed, if you happen to forget.
If it is nonsense for you, you do not have to say anything beyond nonsense.Your problem with the question mark exists, coz your graphic rendering shown on the diagram is topological nonsense.
Code:N P(S) ------+-------- 1 <-> {} 2 <-> {A}
The Man you still do not grasp the accurate meaning of increasing as a present continuous.
They are different notations of the same thing, and as a clearly show, there is a bijection bewteen the set of natural numbers and any given set of different objects, whether the amount of the objects is finite or not.
jsfisher, it is not P(S) unless you account for every P(S) member.You seem to have omitted some of the natural numbers from what you claim to be a bijection--3 for example. It is not a bijection unless you account for every natural number, not just a couple.
jsfisher, it is not P(S) unless you account for every P(S) member.