jsfisher
ETcorngods survivor
- Joined
- Dec 23, 2005
- Messages
- 24,532
I believe you.
Excellent! Now everyone accepts that what you say about Mathematics isn't true.
I believe you.
The fact that none of what you wrote about appears in what I have written suggests the failure is solidly yours.
Here is another example of a step-by-step serial thinker.Excellent! Now everyone accepts that what you say about Mathematics isn't true.
Interesting aside:
The work function for cesium is 1.95 eV. That divided Planck's constant is 471 THz. This can also be expressed as 636 nm, not that that matters, of course.
Does anyone else find this interesting?
Really?
Z < Y or h < Y are two finite cases, where each finite case is between two distinct cases.
It is easily understood that no infinitely many cases of finite cases (where each finite case has cardinality 2) can conclude something about the non-finite case of [X,Y].
These are all finite cases, so?
It doesn't surprise me at all that the meaning of my post completely escaped you. Perhaps someone else will be kind enough to explain it to you.
(Hint: What does the work function divided by Planck's constant give you?)
Yes, really.
And just what does that have to do with what I wrote? The interval [X,Y] nowhere appears in it.
Seriously, find some remedial reading course. It can only help.
jsfisher said:1. If h is an element of the interval (Z,Y), can we not conclude h < Y?
2. If h is an element of the interval (Z,Y), can we not conclude Z < h?
Are Z , Y or h have distinct values?
If they have, then [Z,Y] or [h,Y] are twe finite cases of distinct values, that can't be used in order to conclude anything about [X,Y] non-finite interval.
(b) [X,Y] is a finite interval.
jsfisher said:Let h be any element of the interval (Z,Y)
Wrong.
[X,Y] interval is exactly the all infinitely many R members between distinct X and distinct Y.
Perhaps you should consult a good reference for mathematical terms before you embarrass yourself like this.
This is an exact mathematical term.
You embarrass yourself by not get it.
Wikipedia said:An interval is said to be left-bounded or right-bounded if there is some real number that is, respectively, smaller than or larger than all its elements. An interval is said to be bounded if it is both left- and right-bounded; and is said to be unbounded otherwise. Intervals that are bounded at only one end are said to be half-bounded. The empty set is bounded, and the set of all reals is the only interval that is unbounded at both ends. Bounded intervals are also commonly known as finite intervals.
Bounded intervals are also commonly known as finite intervals.
This is another example of how mathematicians play with words (in this case, "finite interval")...
Do you really think that by exclude or include two distinct values, you change a non-finite collection (ordered or not) to a finite collection (ordered or not), or vice versa?
No.
Actual infinity existence is beyond the collection's existence.
Since you force actual infinity on the level of the collection's existence, you naturally get a contradiction.
But this is your invalid framework, not mine.
This inability to conclude something about the non-finite, by using infinitely many finite cases, is a fundamental problem of the mathematical science if the term all is used on a non-finite collection, because no finite case alone has the quality of a non-finite collection of all distinct members.