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Cont: Deeper than primes - Continuation 2

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I defines it as an optional property of {X}, which your reasoning can't handle with.

No, you don't define it as anything. You simply observed that something either does or does not have the property--a universal truth nobody needed you to point out.

The truth is that you cannot define it because your whole fantasy involving infinite sets depends on the arbitrary. Give successor or complete a fixed definition, and suddenly things stop being so arbitrary, and doronetics ceases to work.
 
Give successor or complete a fixed definition, and suddenly things stop being so arbitrary,
So your reasoning does not distinguish between being arbitrary and being optional, as can clearly be seen in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=11283531&postcount=1518 and http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=11284073&postcount=1525.

Please answer to http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=11304059&postcount=1617.
 
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Say what you will, your reasoning isn't to be found in Mathematics.


Did. And that is all the answer you will get.
 
Say what you will, your reasoning isn't to be found in Mathematics.
Another non-informative reply of yours.


Where exactly you provided links to professional mathematical sources that support your argument that "Mappings are unordered", such that being unordered is an essential (must have) property in order to mathematically be considered as mapping, in the first place?
 
You should have found out how Little 10 Toes defines that word before you started using it.
He defines it as a general name of my posts.

Giving names to my posts does not change the fact that Little 10 Toes's reasoning can't handle with my posts.

The first part of post http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=11305194&postcount=1627 is a concrete example of a reasoning that can't be handled by Little 10 Toes's reasoning.

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jsfisher, since you are unable to use your mathematical skills in order to support your "Mappings are unordered" argument (as requested in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=11305212&postcount=1628), I provide such a source taken from Cornell University:

In page 20 of http://www.cs.cornell.edu/courses/cs2800/2015sp/lnotes/15_cardinality.pdf you can find the expression:

|Evens| < OR = |N| (also written as |Evens| ≤ |N|)

So as you see, |Evens| < |N| is an optional result of comparing cardinalities |Evens| and |N|, exactly as observed in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=11301653&postcount=1608.
 
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|Evens| < OR = |N| (also written as |Evens| ≤ |N|)

No, it is not. Not as you mean it, anyway. You use OR as the boolean inclusive-or and take absurd liberties applying it to things that are not terms. Your construction, < OR =, is not based in Mathematics. The comparative, less than or equal to, is an atomic relation despite the presence of that conjunction in its name.

|E| ≤ |N| <=> (|E| < |N|) or (|E| = |N|)
The ≤ is often written as <=.

< OR = is nonsense.
 
The comparative, less than or equal to, is an atomic relation despite the presence of that conjunction in its name.

The highlighted part is the same as < OR =, despite your twisted maneuvers.
 
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The highlighted part is the same as < OR =, despite your twisted maneuvers.

Mathematics has a less than or equal to relation. It even has a symbol for it, ≤, and <= available as a substitute. It does not have a relation or a symbol, < OR =, though.

Be that as it may, what has this to do with your claim about ordered mappings?

And what does your claim about ordered mappings have to do with your inability to define what you mean by successor?
 
Mathematics has a less than or equal to relation.
It is the same as < OR =, which is notated also as ≤.

Be that as it may, what has this to do with your claim about ordered mappings?
Mappings can be ordered OR unordered, and not just unordered, as you try to force on it.

And what does your claim about ordered mappings have to do with your inability to define what you mean by successor?
You are still missing the simple fact that your questions are direct result of your arbitrary restricted reasoning on Mathematics.

Because of this arbitrary restriction http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=11305194&postcount=1627 is not in the scope of your reasoning.
 
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It is the same as < OR =, which is notated also as ≤.

You made that up.

Mappings can be ordered OR unordered, and not just unordered, as you try to force on it.

You made that up, too. Mappings are unordered.

And these things you made up have nothing to do with your lack of definition for successor -- also something you made up.
 
You made that up.
You arbitrarily made up restrictions on Mathematical reasoning.

Because of these restrictions your reasoning can't distinguish between being a primitive and being an optional property of a given primitive.

This inability is the common cause of your misunderstanding of the last issues at hand.
 
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