doronshadmi
Penultimate Amazing
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- Mar 15, 2008
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NextAnd how is "is a successor of" defined?
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NextAnd how is "is a successor of" defined?
Not by the version of the axiom of infinity, as found in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=11263283&postcount=1235.It is neither of those things. Even if one were to use that definition, the set defined by the axiom of infinity continues to include all of the natural numbers.
Nextquestion please.
As a relation, exactly as "is a member of" is a relation.Flippancy does not a definition make.
You get predicate calculus plus "set" as a concept, "is a member of" as a relation, and whatever else is provided by the axioms other than the Axiom of Infinity (e.g. set union and set equality). Nothing else.
How is "is a successor of" defined?
Not by the version of the axiom of infinity, as found in http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=11263283&postcount=1235.
I agree, it is not the standard axiom of infinity that keeps silence about {y} as a successor of y.Which is not the axiom of infinity.
As a relation, exactly as "is a member of" is a relation.
I agree, it is not the standard axiom of infinity that keeps silence about {y} as a successor of y.
It is ok with me Nonpareil, you do not have to agree with my version of the axiom of infinity (http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=11263283&postcount=1235) that does not keep silence about {y} as a successor of y.
Since you are using the term "all" you are using a hidden assumption that contradicts the notion of being X a successor of Y (the existence of permanently next element).Here, I'll help get you started: "for all X, for all Y, X is a successor of Y if and only if...."
Since you are using the term "all" you are using a hidden assumption that contradicts the notion of being X a successor of Y (the existence of permanently next element).
In order to understand better my notion of what is a successor, please try to define the set of all singleton sets.
The same mechanism that "externally" prevents the completeness of such set, prevents "internally" the completeness of an inductive set (where the set of natural numbers is some particular case of an inductive set).
Have you heard about the word "Please"? (for example: "Please answer the question").No, sorry. Not what was asked.
Answer the question. If your idea is coherent, you should be capable of it.
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[IMG]http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/customavatars/avatar32474_45.gif[/IMG]
Your definition of the set of all singleton sets, is a cornerstone for the definition that you are still waiting for.Still waiting for a definition.
...attempt to shift the burden snipped...
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=11264296&postcount=1253...attempt to shift the burden snipped...
Have you heard about the word "Please"? (for example: "Please answer the question").
Such basic aggressive attitude of you along the following discussion, may harm your ability to understand what I wish to express.
...faulty attempt at a parallel with set membership snipped...
Still waiting of a definition for "is a successor of".
So after all Nonpareil, you can't handle with your avatar (http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=11264137&postcount=1251).It is neither of those things. Even if one were to use that definition, the set defined by the axiom of infinity continues to include all of the natural numbers.