Thank you for proving my point.
Sorry, but it didn't prove your point -- unless your point is that belief in teapots orbiting Jupiter is a more rational belief than belief in extra terrestrial intelligent life. Was that your point?
I mentioned previously that evidence isn't the only kind of information that is useful to us.
Evidence is the only information helpful in determining the probability of intelligent aliens or anything else. Specifically, a belief without evidence is a faith-based belief rather than an evidence-based belief. Whether or not other information that's not evidence inspires people to pursue actual evidence to support the belief seems to be irrelevant when determining whether the belief is supported by evidence or not.
And you specifically stated that the new evidence to be used for the argument for God (i.e. the value to be plugged in) is evidence that the universe is fine-tuned - that is, the probability that the physical constants necessary to lead to life would have the value that they have due to chance.
I don't understand the above sentence. The new evidence (the probability that the universe is fine-tuned) is actually two variables: the probability that the universe is fine-tuned if a god exists and the probability that the universe is fine-tuned if there is no god. In the form of Bayes theorem used by the argument, these values are represented by P(E|H) and P(E|~H).
Again, here is the form of Bayes theorem used in the argument:
Code:
P(E|H) * P(H)
P(H|E) = ---------------------------------------
[ P(E|H) * P(H) ] + [ P(E|~H) * P(~H) ]
P(H) - probability that god exists
P(~H) - probability that there is no god (1.0 - P(H))
P(E|H) - probability that the universe is fine-tuned if a god exists
P(E|~H) - probability that the universe is fine-tuned if no god
On the other hand, every value of the Drake equation, when plugged into the terms of the equation, will influence the result.
As they do in the above equation.
So my question is, how can the presence of fine-tuning be evidence of God if the posterior probability of God is unchanged regardless of whether these physical constants are common or rare?
The prior probability P(H) and posterior probability P(H|E) will be different unless P(E|H) and P(E|~H) are the same (which would indicate no fine-tuning). The amount that they differ depend on the values of P(E|H) and P(E|~H) assumed in the premise. Therefore, I don't understand your question.
-Bri
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