Michael Mozina
Banned
- Joined
- Feb 10, 2009
- Messages
- 9,361
I've already explicitly stated that no infinite energies are involved here.
Then no infinite temperatures are involved here either.
Of course it starts out at low temperature. This is to ensure a large magnetization. The lower energy you START at, the higher the energy will be once you reverse the field.
Did the temperature jump to an INFINITE state, yes or no?
It does everything for my infinite temperature claim. You cannot have negative temperatures without infinite temperatures. Proof of negative temperatures IS proof of infinite temperatures.
No. I can/will accept a definition of "negative temperature" if all you mean by the statement is an *INTERNAL ATOMIC ARRANGEMENT* that ultimately requires *finite external energy* to change that state. I can live with that concept. I can't live with our claim about 'infinity"+ temperatures however because nothing in that experiment ever achieved anything other than a "finite" energy state. PERIOD.
You'd know this if you understood what temperature is. But you obviously don't. Infinite temperature does not require infinite energy for all systems.
If it's a finite amount of energy involved, then by necessity it's a FINITE temperature as well. In fact you own experiment *DEMONSTRATES* that point very clearly. If we add just a "tiny" bit of energy, the internal atomic arrangement returns to zero. There's nothing *INFINITE* about it!
Last edited: