Skeptic Ginger
Nasty Woman
- Joined
- Feb 14, 2005
- Messages
- 96,955
But that is also false according to the evidence.SkeptiGirl: The cited study does not say that nobody got flu-like symptoms; it simply says that patients getting a placebo shot instead ALSO got flu-like symptoms at about the same rate. So I think Pax's post was correct, but incomplete. Something along the lines of, "...a flu shot can cause [symptoms] -- of course, so can getting a saline injection." might be clearer.
You are forgetting that we know what is causing the symptoms. It is simply the coincidental timing of flu shots which are given during the peak in other mild infectious diseases.The flu vaccine is not what's causing the symptoms, but they are occurring. Psycho-somatic effects aren't imaginary! They're just caused by some still-unknown mechanism(s).
Where is your evidence that the occurrence of symptoms after flu shots are psychosomatic? I can show you other evidence that is not the case.Some subjects get actual rashes from placebos! And some get symptom relief. There's a world of interesting stuff to be discovered in the realm of mind-body effect--that science has not yet figured out the mechanism doesn't make it mythical. And recognizing that such effects occur isn't surrendering to woo explanations of them, either.
I know, it's a minor detail, but I am fascinated by placebo effect and have had to change how I think and talk about it to be accurate. The real world is so much more amazing than any fantasy ever written!
The way to sort out the effect of something such as a flu vaccine is to subtract the background rate. If you get zero when you subtract the background rate then the variable you are testing caused zero % of the effect.
Now there is the issue of a no test arm in a study. That would be the true background rate. And many studies don't include a no treatment arm. But if you had an ideal study you would start with a large group, you would randomly assign members of the group to a no treatment arm, a placebo arm and a flu shot arm. If the rates of mild systemic symptoms was the same in all three groups then the flu shots caused ZERO % of the systemic symptoms. If the placebo and flu shot groups had more systemic symptoms than the no treatment group, then you would be seeing the effect of getting a shot.
Only if the flu shot group had more systemic symptoms than the other two groups, then that would be evidence the effect was due to the flu vaccine.
You seem to be making a common mistake here. You are attributing cause to a variable, (getting the shot), when the evidence suggests some other variable, (more likely frequency of upper respiratory infections at the same time we give flu vaccine) is responsible for the effect.
There is no evidence the effects are psychosomatic. While one needs that no treatment arm to confirm that, the assumption the symptoms are coming from the shot are unsupported. Such a conclusion is short sighted. It fails to consider the obvious variable, the frequency of common respiratory infections in Oct and Nov.
You are correct to consider placebo effect as one possible variable. And I have an advantage of knowing that study is but one of several pieces of very good evidence that confirm side effects from flu vaccine, psychological or not, are 99% myth. But I'm pretty sure you'd have a hard time finding any evidence that the placebo effect contributes to systemic symptoms after flu shots. What you will find, however, is people pay more attention to their symptoms after a shot and in a study. So that headache which would have been forgotten a week later is instead remembered if the patient associated it with the flu shot.
I've tried these kinds of examples. But there is something about the convincing personal experience that blocks the person seeing the correlation.ETA: On the larger issue of convincing versus just showing how a method is faulty, a counter-example can be helpful. On the issue of Correlation is not Causation, I like to point out that there is a strong correlation between espresso drinks consumed by parents and kids' test scores.
After a moment, I explain that this is because AFFLUENCE is strongly correlated to both! Wealth enough to make $3 coffee drinks a common expenditure means one or both parents are making good money; that is strongly linked to literacy and level of education. Parental literacy and level of education are linked to kids' scholastic achievement. It would be erroneous to credit some caffeine-induced Life Energy that jumps from the parent's aura to the kid's as the source of the initial correlation. (Editor's note: I assume in the UK this would not work, since the percentage of coffee junkies is so much lower.) Usually, this example works because people can see how there IS a real correlation, and yet no causation.
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