Bart Ehrman on the Historical Jesus

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There is evidence for the Christian God because there is strong evidence for the historical person known as Christ. In the Christian religion Christ is part of the Godhead known as the Trinity. According to mainline Christianity, Christ is God in the flesh. Therefore if you have strong evidence for Christ, you have some evidence for God in the Christian religion. And there is strong evidence for the historical person known as Jesus Christ if we are to believe Bart Ehrman who said Jesus "certainly existed" on page 173 of his latest book "Did Jesus Exist?".

Of course, as has been pointed out to you many times (by me, and by others), if you had read any of Did Jesus Exist other than "page 173" you would know that the Jesus that Ehrman says "certainly existed" was a fully-human, non-divine, non-magical, non-resurrected, apocalyptic preacher who, demonstrably, could not have been "the messiah"...

When you support your superstition with demonstrable falsehoods, you should expect people to continue to dismiss your assertions.
 
The Hector Avalos presentation was excellent! :D

I quite agree that the constant appeal to authority gets us nowhere. Especially when the authorities being appealed to don't even study the topic!

Ancient Near East studies is a wide field - should we simply assume, as some apparently have, that in order to pursue their specialty (Suppose it was Egyptology or Assyriology) they need to investigate the alleged historicity of a character in the religious mythology from a foreign culture in another land from a time period hundreds of years later?

The rather comical citation of ANE scholars as 'experts' about Judea as a Roman Province just exposes the rather poor grasp some have - the field is restricted to a period ending a couple of hundred years before the alleged career of Jesus!

I suppose the words 'ancient Near East' sounded cool so they repeat them blissfully ignorant of what the words actually mean.

Yes, the Avalos presentation was especially good because it means POVs change, even within academe.
Very slowly, but they change.
One example is the academic consensus on Iberian pottery. I won't hijack the thread to burble on about the pressure to write about Iberian pottery as a local phenomenon, uninfluenced by Greek, Phoenician or Egyptian products and art forms, but if THIS relatively obscure subject is so rigidly controlled, what must Bible studies be like?



...I think we can agree that "MJ" refers to there being _no_ person behind the legend of Jesus who could possibly be identified with the man in the story. ...

No, not really.
There might be no person behind the story.
There might be several, or there might be a person from an entirely different period shoe-horned into the story, a là Robin Hood.

Don't you agree with Ehrmann's definition of MJ? It seems to me to be the best definition I've seen so far.

Since we're here- how would you define an HJ?
 
Ian

In what you yellowed for emphasis, if something is granted, then I would consider that some other things would be facts within the scope of what is granted. By all means, decline to grant the hypothesis, or propose other things that would follow from it, in addition or instead, in your view. Recognize that that would be your view, not mine, until and unless I posted my hearty agreement.

pakeha

Oh, noes... you really are starting a "What counts as a mythological Jesus?" thread.
 
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No, not really.
There might be no person behind the story.
There might be several, or there might be a person from an entirely different period shoe-horned into the story, a là Robin Hood.

Yes, my bad. I wanted to write "no single person" but that middle word was omitted. You are correct.

Don't you agree with Ehrmann's definition of MJ? It seems to me to be the best definition I've seen so far.

I see three options:

DJ: Divine Jesus.
HJ: A real human behind the myth, preferably from around the time period we're discussing (circa 30 CE) and in that area. The closer to the story the better, obviously.
MJ: Everything else.

Since we're here- how would you define an HJ?

Good question, though I feel like I've answered this more than once already. Recently, in fact. Anyway, see above.
 
Yes, my bad. I wanted to write "no single person" but that middle word was omitted. You are correct.

No worries.
I have a memory like a sieve and a keyboard with a will of its own, so I spend a lot of time posting things like "I meant to say", "Sorry" and "ETA clarity"


I see three options:

DJ: Divine Jesus.
HJ: A real human behind the myth, preferably from around the time period we're discussing (circa 30 CE) and in that area. The closer to the story the better, obviously.
MJ: Everything else. ...

How far from the story would qualify for an HJ, do you reckon?
 
tsig and proudfootz

The canons seem to have emerged by consensus, fostered by inertia and imitativeness. Anybody can make a canon, after all. If enough people of similar worldview make the same or nearly the same canon, then it's the canon.

Is there some other collection of books that you'd like better? Where are we going with this?

I can't vouch for tsig, but it is my impression when reviewing the canonical literature it's about where we are rather than where we are going.

Certainly anybody can make a canon, the question is for this canon who made those decisions and upon what basis did they make them?

It appears to me that in the case of the NT these were institutional decisions by persons representing the interests of 'the church' and that it's likely they picked and chose what was 'in' and what was 'out' based more or less on what was deemed the theological line at that time.

After all, 'the church' did have power to enforce its decisions. It's not as if we have much evidence that anyone had the freedom to practice their own versions of christianity or could add or drop different texts into the local bible. Orthodox christianity didn't just happen by accident- in had power to reward its friends and punish dissent.

But I like what you say about a consensus "fostered by inertia and imitativeness" - in this I agree that some clues to rival christianities and previous dogmas (even heresies) might have survived the final cut.
 
Proudfootz wrote: I have no problem with your asserting 'MJ comes from anti-religious bias', so long as you are no hypocrite and allow others to assert 'HJ comes from pro-religious bias'.

I allow it, but I see no evidence for it from anyone here, nor from most scholars on this topic. What I do see, from experience with my own "path", is a reluctance to give even a historical, very human Jesus any concession, for fear that the divine Jesus will creep in. In fact, that's almost exactly what posters like IanS and Dejudge are saying.

Perhaps you should not be so quick to assume that disagreement stems from dishonesty automatically, or at least keep that to yourself. You'll find it makes for much better debates.

If you ever take the time to read Ehrman you'll see he accuses critics of anti-christian bias. I can't speak to what 'most scholars' say, because no evidence has been brought forward as to how many scholars think anything.

Having read dejudge's posts carefully, it's clear that he's not the least bit concerned with whether the HJ hypothesis is a gateway drug to full-blown credulity. He's posting that there's no evidence of an 'historical, very human Jesus' in the literature of the 1st or 2nd century AD. Dejudge backs this up with an encyclopedic knowledge of early christian literature. He says the claims for an HJ is not proved, fails to meet any reasonable burden of evidence.

As for IanS it appears he is saying that there does not appear to be sufficient evidence to conclude there was an 'historical, very human Jesus'. He is agnostic on this, as he has explained many times.

How that focus on the inadequacy of the evidence translates in your judgement to an 'anti-religious bias' is not clear to me.

My own position is that HJers who shriek about 'bias' are living in glass houses, and shouldn't be throwing stones. They'd better attend to the log in their own eyes before pretending to be worried about dust specks in anyone else's.

In the end, someone's alleged bias, whether pro- or anti- anything doesn't mean anything. It all comes down to the particular arguments used and the evidence cited.
 
Ian

In what you yellowed for emphasis, if something is granted, then I would consider that some other things would be facts within the scope of what is granted. By all means, decline to grant the hypothesis, or propose other things that would follow from it, in addition or instead, in your view. Recognize that that would be your view, not mine, until and unless I posted my hearty agreement.



OK, well first - this is nothing personal. But you cannot write something like that, which is absolutely crucial to the entire discussion, where you very plainly and unarguably say that “if Paul's own theory is granted” then “it is a fact that the James Gang … had been Jesus' students beforehand" , unless you can show where in any of Paul’s letters he says he has that theory.

And I already asked you where it said any such thing in Paul’s letters, and you could not quote Paul ever saying any such thing.

Here is your full quote again -


pakeha
As much as Paul would like to say that his being commissioned by a ghost to preach, is all that matters, it is a fact (if Paul's own theory is granted) that the James Gang have that commission themselves plus they had been Jesus' students beforehand. Their handshake, then, is worth something to Paul, as is their agreement not to fish in his pond.


So just lets be clear about this - (1) if you think Paul had that theory, then that is something which you have inferred, but which afaik Paul does not say. So that actually makes it your theory, not Paul’s. And (2) afaik, nowhere in any of Paul’s “genuine” letters does he claim to know anyone that ever met a living Jesus, right?
 
OK, well first - this is nothing personal. But you cannot write something like that, which is absolutely crucial to the entire discussion, where you very plainly and unarguably say that “if Paul's own theory is granted” then “it is a fact that the James Gang … had been Jesus' students beforehand" , unless you can show where in any of Paul’s letters he says he has that theory.

And I already asked you where it said any such thing in Paul’s letters, and you could not quote Paul ever saying any such thing.


So just lets be clear about this - (1) if you think Paul had that theory, then that is something which you have inferred, but which afaik Paul does not say. So that actually makes it your theory, not Paul’s. And (2) afaik, nowhere in any of Paul’s “genuine” letters does he claim to know anyone that ever met a living Jesus, right?

By now everyone should know Paul exhibits no knowledge of any 'disciples' or 'students'.

This is similar to the twisting of the phrase 'Brother of the Lord' into 'brother of Jesus' - a not-so-subtle twisting of the text to re-write scriptures to conform to an hypothesis.
 
I think there's confusion over what 'burden of proof' implies.

There is no real confusion over 'burden of proof'. Those who claim that an event probably happened should have the evidence to support their probability.

If it is claimed the God of the Jews probably exists it is expected that the claimants will present evidence.

The claimants have presented no actual evidence for the God of the Jews so I REJECTED the claim.

I did the very same thing for the assumed Jesus of Nazareth. I REJECTED the claim that there was probably an historical Jesus because the claimants have NEVER EVER presented any actual evidence and it has since been discovered that there is NO contemporary evidence who even mentioned Jesus of Nazareth.

I am rationally obligated to REJECT all un-evidenced claims.

Human beings are obligated to be rational.

The HJ argument is wholly un-evidenced--I am obligated to REJECT it.
I have no other rational choice.
 
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"Jesus is a myth."
"OK, give me evidence for that, because there's lots of myth theories." "Yes, but I'm not proposing any specific myth; I'm just saying he's a myth. So I don't need to provide evidence." Mmm.
What you are saying is, you don't need to provide evidence for tsig's "doctrine committee", and tsig doesn't need to provide evidence for dejudge's hoax forger falsifying fabricators, and neither of you needs to give evidence about the author copyists and none of these people needs to tell us anything about the metaphysical crucifixion perpetrated by the Archontes of Woo in the Sublunary Superterrestrial Cloud Cuckoo Land; and if people in general can't give evidence for other people's theories, and don't give any for their own, then anyone can say anything whatsoever, and no evidence needs to be advanced at all. Great!

Actually, Remsburg stated "(i)t is often difficult, if not impossible, to distinguish a historical from a philosophical myth. Hence the non-agreement of Freethinkers in regard to the nature of the Christ myth. Is Christ a historical or a philosophical myth? Does an analysis of his alleged history disclose the deification of a man, or merely the personification of an idea?"

Jesus is a myth; that is not in debate. The question is where on the spectrum I. Howard Marshall talks about does that myth fall. Remsburg, Barker, and Eddy-Boyd all came up with categories which roughly fall into these:

Christ Myth theory (Philosophical myth)

"Jesus Christ is a pure myth—that he never had an existence, except as a Messianic idea, or an imaginary solar deity."

"Jesus never existed at all and that the myth came into being through a literary process."

All trace of a historical person, if there was ever one was to begin with, has been lost. (Jesus agnosticism)

Jesus began as at a Myth with historical trappings possibly including "reports of an obscure Jewish Holy man bearing this name" being being added later.


Christ Myth theory (Historical myth via the narrative is essentially false) or Minimalist "Many radical Freethinkers believe that Christ is a myth, of which Jesus of Nazareth is the basis, but that these narratives are so legendary and contradictory as to be almost if not wholly, unworthy of credit." "Other skeptics deny that the Jesus character portrayed in the New Testament existed, but that there could have been a first century personality after whom the exaggerated myth was pattered." There is just enough to show there was a first century teacher called Jesus and little else.

Moderate Historical
"Jesus of Nazareth is a historical character and that these narratives, eliminating the supernatural elements, which they regard as myths, give a fairly authentic account of his life."

"Jesus did exist, and that some parts of the New Testament are accurate, although the miracles and the claim to deity are due to later editing of the original story."

A historical Jesus did exist but was very different from the gospel Jesus.

Total/Extreme Historical

"Christ is a historical character, supernatural and divine; and that the New Testament narratives, which purport to give a record of his life and teachings, contain nothing but infallible truth."

"The New Testament is basically true in all of its accounts except that there are natural explanations for the miracle stories."

It is the "Christ Myth theory (Historical myth via the narrative is essentially false) or Minimalist" position the HJers seem to have problems with because it puts him on par with King Arthur or Robin Hood. The idea that yes there likely is a man behind the myth but the myth tells us next to nothing (other than the man existed) seems to terrify them because that mean the entire Gospels account from birth, through sayings, to death may not be true!

In other words if the Gospel accounts is on par with stories like George Washington and the Cherry Tree; Davy Crockett and the Frozen Dawn; and Jesse James and the Widow then they essentially describe a Jesus who in reality didn't exist and cannot be used to determine anything about the actual man.
 
Isn't this just a form of circularly reasoned bootstrapping?

I believe "A" and since "A" infers "B", then "B" must be real therefore "A" must be real too!.
 
Having read dejudge's posts carefully, it's clear that he's not the least bit concerned with whether the HJ hypothesis is a gateway drug to full-blown credulity. He's posting that there's no evidence of an 'historical, very human Jesus' in the literature of the 1st or 2nd century AD. Dejudge backs this up with an encyclopedic knowledge of early christian literature. He says the claims for an HJ is not proved, fails to meet any reasonable burden of evidence.

As for IanS it appears he is saying that there does not appear to be sufficient evidence to conclude there was an 'historical, very human Jesus'. He is agnostic on this, as he has explained many times.

While I agree we should point out that you can't "prove" a negative.

Jesus was a very common name and there were would be messiahs from 6 BCE all the way through 70 CE and even some after that. You simply cannot prove there wasn't in the 1st century some obscure preacher named Jesus who talked about over throwing Roman rule, was killed as a result, and then some elaborate myth woven around him to make him larger and more important then he really was.

And it is this FACT that the HJ proponents latch onto with all the desperation of a man dying of thirst in a desert latches onto a canteen filled with water. The problem is this is the area of King Arthur and Robin Hood--where one can argue there is good evidence there was something or perhaps someone there but the actual person (if you are not dealing with a composite character) has for all practical purposes been lost.

The moment you compare the canon Gospel and Acts with actual history you realize you are reading very badly researched propaganda in that the geography is a disaster, the social political climate is nonsense, and the trials have all the reality of a Perry Mason drama. So much is off it is hard to say any of it is true. Even with a several century gap between the supposed events and the first ballads the Robin Hood myth better fits the social political climate when they are supposed to have taken place then the Jesus accounts do.
 
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By the way, have you even read Ehrman's book? Have you read any of them?
I very much doubt it, it was shown in DOC's last thread invocation of Ehrman that he hadn't actually read any of his books but just obediently parroted a few quote mined bits used by his church.

His position is that Jesus was a Jewish religious crank who thought he was going to defeat the Romans and was probably quite shocked when he found himself hanging from a cross.
And frankly Ehrman isn't even convincing on showing that much Jesus.
The idea that an historical Jesus existed no more proves the existence of YHWH than the existence of Nicolas of Myra proves the existence of Santa's North Pole toy factory, or the existence of L. Ron Hubbard proves the existence of Xenu.
Agreed absolutely, Ehrman is an agnostic and former xian, he certainly doesn't believe in a divine Jesus. Which is something DOC's been told numerous times.
 
Interestingly, Ehrman's latest book is on the topic of "how Jesus became God".....He was on NPR's Fresh Air last week; a convoluted tale.
 
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