I don't believe in the authenticity of the TF at all. But I think the works of Josephus in general are real first century products. My argument of course is that we can't use only the date of the earliest extant manuscript to determine times of composition of texts. Otherwise we end up like Hardouin. And he was a "lone nut" as regards this forgery theory of ancient writings.
Craig - you really will have to start accepting some inescapable truths and facts here. Otherwise most of us are going to stop taking your posts seriously at all.
Look;- you must very well know and understand that when all we have as copies of what Josephus or Tacitus and others were supposed to have written around the first few centuries AD, are Christian copies written 1000 years later, that immediately puts a huge question mark over the accuracy and reliability of what appears in the 11th century and later copies.
You are talking as if it were being suggested here that the whole of what Josephus had originally written, had been changed entirely. But that is absolutely NOT what sceptics are suggesting at all.
What is being suggested is that because authors like Josephus and Tacitus only made the briefest of passing mention of Jesus, and because even bible scholars and theologians all agree that almost all of the early Christian and non-Christian writing of this sort appears to have suffered from all sorts of alterations over the years, it is perfectly obvious and really unarguable that brief passages such as these may very easily have had words added or deleted in accordance with what Christian copyists of the 11th century had by then come to believe.
It really does not take much at all to completely transform the apparent meaning of such brief passages as those.
For example, in the case of the very famous passage in Paul’s letter where he talks about James as "the lords brother" (and I know that is not from Josephus!), it's perfectly obvious that the sentence could very easily have originally just said ... "other apostles saw I none" full stop! ... and then a later scribe thinking that he would have also met James if he was at the church in Jerusalem simply added ... "save James" ... and then finally, yet another scribe, thinking that James was supposed to be the brother of Jesus, simply decided to clarify who James was by adding ... "the Lord's brother" ...
... the point of that is not that I am saying that is how it happened. What I am saying is that a very small change like that, just adding those final three explanatory words "the lords brother", has created what is now in 2014 commonly claimed as the very best and most definitive evidence of Jesus ... in fact, it's even something you yourself have just been trying to claim as proof that Paul would have been told all about Jesus because he met his brother! But ...
... those words "the lords brother" come at the end of a sentence which in any case would have ended quite naturally just at the point where it says "other apostles saw I none", that is a natural end to the sentence. The next words "save James" are in the form of an afterthought ... and the final three words are in the form of adding an explanation of who James was thought to be ...
... but all of that comes not from anything that we know ever to have been written by Paul c.55AD. It comes instead from those same Christian copyists who even bible scholars and theologians now admit, were often altering these documents in small ways like that, to add any explanatory notes, or make any small additions and deletions wherever they had come to think that it needed changing.
So you do have to be very careful about accepting any brief sentences like that at face value when you are relying only upon later Christian religious copying, as you are in the case of Josephus, Tacitus and the rest, and of course also for the gospels and letters etc.