Do you have any evidence that Nero persecuted Christians?
Only Tacitus and Pliny and Clement and Origen and Eusebius and...
It would help you to answer these things yourself if you read the thread.
Do you have any evidence that Nero persecuted Christians?
There is legitimate room for doubt, and personally I am doubtful. Not all these sources are independent, and I agree with those commentators who say that Tacitus obtained his information from Christians of his own day, and not from contemporary official records of Nero's reign. (Of course this doesn't necessarily mean that all his information is false!) We know for example that Pliny, friend and colleague of Tacitus (http://www.smatch-international.org/PlinyLetters.html) knew nothing of Christians until he investigated those living in Bythinia. Nor does Trajan seem to have been much better informed.Only Tacitus and Pliny and Clement and Origen and Eusebius and...
It would help you to answer these things yourself if you read the thread.
Do you have any evidence that Nero persecuted Christians?
There is legitimate room for doubt, and personally I am doubtful. Not all these sources are independent, and I agree with those commentators who say that Tacitus obtained his information from Christians of his own day, and not from contemporary official records of Nero's reign. (Of course this doesn't necessarily mean that all his information is false!) We know for example that Pliny, friend and colleague of Tacitus (http://www.smatch-international.org/PlinyLetters.html) knew nothing of Christians until he investigated those living in Bythinia. Nor does Trajan seem to have been much better informed.
Eusebius must be treated with the greatest caution as a historian of the earliest days of the Church.
So you're just going to pretend that all that stuff in the article that you linked to about how "Chrestians" and "Christians" was used interchangeably never existed? Let's look at it again:
It has been stated that both the terms Christians and Chrestians had at times been used by the general population in Rome to refer to early Christians. Robert Van Voorst says that many sources indicate that the term Chrestians was also used among the early followers of Jesus by the second century. The term Christians appears only three times in the New Testament, the first usage (Acts 11:26) giving the origin of the term. In all three cases the uncorrected Codex Sinaiticus in Greek reads Chrestianoi. In Phrygia a number of funerary stone inscriptions use the term Chrestians, with one stone inscription using both terms together, reading: "Chrestians for Christians". Source
The sad thing is that the above passage comes right after the part you quoted about the alteration of the letter 'e' to an 'i'.
You are ignoring facts because they don't support what you want to be the truth. How does that make your arguments any different from religious apologia?
Van Voorst has also served as a supply pastor at various PC(USA) churches in north-central Pennsylvania, and for twelve years as pastor at Rochester Reformed Church, New York.[1][2]
We believe that God created the world and everything in it, including human beings.
God created a perfect world. In the beginning, there was no sin--no hatred, no disunity, and no death. But God also allowed humans to make their own choices.
The first humans, Adam and Eve, disobeyed God, allowing sin to enter God's perfect world. From then on, every human has been born with sinful desires that lead to separation from God.
But the story doesn't end there. God loves the world and the people in it--so much, in fact, that he made a plan to take away the guilt of our sin.
God sent his son, Jesus, into the world as a human. Jesus gave his life to pay the price for sins he didn't commit. Jesus accepted the punishment for our sins so that we don't have to.
Three days after Jesus was killed, God brought Jesus to life again, defeating the power of death and evil. Jesus still lives today, eternally in heaven with God the Father. One day he will come back to earth to put an end to evil--sin, death, and pain--and renew all things.
He will gather all who have believed in him from every time and place to live with him forever.........
And in modern Chicago?... anyone who lived in Chicago in the early 20th Century would be familiar with what happened there in the 19th century.
Oral tradition was how anyone knew anything (mostly) in Ancient Rome.
I happen to think that Tacitus as a Roman Chronicler who lived in the city all his life, would be familiar with lots of sources about the Great Fire and its aftermath.
Just as anyone who lived in Chicago in the early 20th Century would be familiar with what happened there in the 19th century.
Oral tradition was how anyone knew anything (mostly) in Ancient Rome.
Did Tacitus live in Rome all his life?
I couldn't find evidence to support that idea.
"Little is known for certain about the origins of Tacitus, although he is believed to have been born, around A.D. 56, into a provincial aristocratic family in Gaul (modern France) or nearby, in the Roman province of Transalpine Gaul. We don't even know if his name was "Publius" or "Gaius Cornelius" Tacitus. "
http://ancienthistory.about.com/od/historianstacitus/a/Tacitus.htm
Wiki tells us he served " in the provinces from ca. 89 to ca. 93 either in command of a legion or in a civilian post.[22]", that "[a] lengthy absence from politics and law followed while he wrote the Histories and the Annals. In 112 or 113 he held the highest civilian governorship, that of the Roman province of Asia in Western Anatolia, recorded in the inscription found at Mylasa mentioned above"
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tacitus
I was surprised at how sketchy our knowledge is of Tacitus.
Yes but people here keep citing Tacitus and stressing that the earliest manuscript dates from the eleventh century. My point is, that we can't take for granted that Chrestus is definitely not another form of Christus, unless we apply this reasoning to our first complete NT manuscripts, which precede the Tacitus and other manuscripts by many centuries. That the NT refers to a pagan group is untenable.
Only Tacitus and Pliny and Clement and Origen and Eusebius and...
It would help you to answer these things yourself if you read the thread.
Not my point at all, as you must be aware. I am saying that the word "Chrestian" in the earliest complete manuscript of the NT can only refer to the Jesus group. It can't possibly refer to worshippers of Osiris or any other pagan group. Now, if it means the Jesus group here, then it must mean the same thing in Tacitus who explicitly refers to the founder of the "Chrestian" movement as having been executed by Pilate.... Remember that by the time we get our first complete NT manuscripts Christianity has borrowed ideas from the pagans in order to compete...like the December 25 birth date. So why not the term Chrestian?
So what? Tacitus was referring to people who followed a person executed by Pilate. And the term he uses is also the one in the Codex Sinaiaticus. So your possibility doesn't arise here, even though for all I know the word Chrestian may refer to worshippers of Osiris or Serapis in some other context. But these gods weren't executed by Pilate, and their followers are not the people of the NT account.It is well within possibility that one sect latched on to the term Chrestian; 'we're not like those other sects that follow Jesus, we're the good ones' (ie Chrestians)![]()
(…)So why include it in your list of abnormalities designed to refute HJ? The few details taken seriously by these historicists are well known to you.
Here is a summary of them from Wiki on HJ.
Most modern scholars of antiquity agree that Jesus existed, but scholars differ on the historicity of specific episodes described in the Biblical accounts of Jesus, and the only two events subject to "almost universal assent" are that Jesus was baptized by John the Baptist and was crucified by the order of the Roman Prefect Pontius Pilate. Biblical scholars and classical historians regard theories of his non-existence as effectively refuted. Most scholars agree that Jesus was a Galilean Jew who was born between 7 and 4 BC, in the closing stages of the reign of King Herod and died 30–36 AD, that he lived in Galilee and Judea, did not preach or study elsewhere, and that he spoke Aramaic and perhaps also Hebrew and Greek.
That is the position you must attack, and the historicists must defend.
Because it is a good guess. Paul says he practiced baptism, without apparent enthusiasm. That Paul believed there was some sort of Jesus-Dunker link is easily suspected. The precise quality of the believed link is debatable, as you say, but the net upshot was that Jesus' survivors and successors dunked. Somebody thought John was on to something.Let us take into account the baptism of Jesus. It is one of the broadest consensuses among historians and specialists because it includes believers and nonbelievers.
Really? The only evangelist who pimps Jesus as unambiguously divine, the Fourth, omits the incident. If it bothered the others, then they could have dumped it, too. In fact, the other three follow Mark's lead. Jesus scores an endorsement from a big-name Jewish holy man, his only one before he died, talk about embarrassment for a Jewish Messiah, and a theophany - one-on-one with God Almighty. Not bad for a swim. I'd leave it in if I was Jesus' press agent.For the latter the story of Jesus' baptism should have some historic cause because it represents a difficulty for the evangelists.
Really? That isn't what Josephus says. Metanoia covered the sins as needed. The ritual washing was to cleanse the body afterwards so that it matched the purity of the now-refreshed spirit. Assuming that the point of Jesus' ministry was to "redeem flesh," one would be hard pressed to find a more approporiate expression of the idea within the range of Jewish ritual.Indeed, it is assumed that John the Baptist baptized to wash away the sins, ...
Not my point at all, as you must be aware. I am saying that the word "Chrestian" in the earliest complete manuscript of the NT can only refer to the Jesus group. It can't possibly refer to worshippers of Osiris or any other pagan group. Now, if it means the Jesus group here, then it must mean the same thing in Tacitus who explicitly refers to the founder of the "Chrestian" movement as having been executed by Pilate. So what? Tacitus was referring to people who followed a person executed by Pilate. And the term he uses is also the one in the Codex Sinaiaticus. So your possibility doesn't arise here, even though for all I know the word Chrestian may refer to worshippers of Osiris or Serapis in some other context. But these gods weren't executed by Pilate, and their followers are not the people of the NT account.

Questing
All this ignores the point I raised regarding Chrestos and the related Chrestian:
As noted in Mitchell, James Barr (1880) Chrestos: a religious epithet; its import and influence and Pleket, H.W.; Stroud, R.S.. "Egypt. Funerary epithets in Egypt.(26-1702)." Supplementum Epigraphicum Graecum. Current editors: A. T. R.S. R.A. Chaniotis Corsten Stroud Tybout. Brill Online, 2013. "Chrestus" was also used as a title and some of these inscriptions predate the supposed time of Jesus.
According to one source the Corpus Inscriptionum Latinarum CIL VI:24944 which is dated to 1st century BCE has the inscription Iucundus Chrestianus. If the dating is correct then Chrestianus cannot be a misspelling for Christianus...unless you accept the Jesus 100 BCE theory.
Finally there is a funeral stone with the inscription "Chrestians for Christians" (Van Voorst, Robert E (2000). Jesus Outside the New Testament: An Introduction to the Ancient Evidence Eerdmans Publishing ISBN 0-8028-4368-9 pages 33-35; Gibson, Elsa (1978) The Christians for Christians Inscriptions of Phrygia) which if they were the one and the same group would be totally nonsensical.
The evidence suggests there was a Chrestian group around that possibly predated the Jesus followers by a century.
You also have to remember that the Jews took meticulous care in translating their holy book from Hebrew into Greek and would know the difference between the Greek word for annotated (ΧΡΙΣΤΟΣ) and the one for good or useful (ΧΡΗΣΤΟΣ). So if Jesus was the annotated one why did his followers not get it right until the mid point of the 5th century (c450 CE) and keep calling him the Good or Useful?
Furthermore if until 450 CE the Christian themselves were calling themselves Chrestian what does that mean regarding all the references to Christian that are supposedly before that date, hmm?
The point I was making is that the evidence is that the term Chrestian appears to predate Jesus and one sect of what would eventually become called Christianity co-oped the term. In fact in the light of Marcion of Sinope's Bible a Jesus Chrestos (Jesus the Good) makes far more sense when you are claim that god of the Jews and the God Jesus was from are two different beings. That is hard to even consider if you are using the Greek version of a Jewish title.
Tacitus seems to be repeating an urban myth as Pliny the Elder and Josephus who were in Rome in 64 CE don't mention a Christian or Chestian movement at all. If the TF was genuine in any way wouldn't Josephus have mentioned the further misfortune of Jesus followers under Nero since he was right there in the freaking city when it was supposedly going on?
.....Therefore I would say that the evidence of the baptism of Jesus seems very fragile. If I had to pronounce I would say that I do not known if baptism happened or not. So I would only assert that at that time there was a preacher who was crucified by the Romans. Full stop.
As a hero, leading a combined relief and research mission to the stricken area.Imagine surviving Nero, retire to a quiet life in a lovely city, only to die in a volcanic explosion.
HJ is a recent Hoax
pakeha
As a hero, leading a combined relief and research mission to the stricken area.
Not making any particular point, just appreciating a life well lived.