Again, I answer your question. Why do you refuse to admit it?
I present the supporting evidence. The story that Jesus the Son of God was Killed by the Jews was invented after the Fall of the Temple c 70 CE. . . . (snip) . . .
We seem to be talking past one another. I already understood that the invention of the Jews killing Jesus dates from the gospels, all of which were written after the destruction of the Temple. I've known this rather obvious fact for some time. You didn't introduce me to it. That's not the question I was asking you.
Let me clarify. When I mentioned Pliny the Younger's letter to Trajan on his prosecution of the Christians in Bithynia as evidence that the Christian religion in some form was in existence by
ca. CE 110, you stated that there was no support for those Christians being the same as the Christians who eventually formed what we know of as the Christian religion. You have further asserted that the Pauline epistles were written at about or after CE 180. What I'm asking you is what you see as some sort of timeline for the origin and development of the Christian religion - the one that was eventually successful.
I also asked you about what you saw as the source of that Christian religion and how, if the Christ of those Pliny was prosecuting in Bithynia had nothing to do with a fictional rabbi / messianic figure called Jesus, the religion got its Jewish association. I thought you had seen it as origination among Hellenized Jews of the Diaspora. However, you told me you were arguing no such thing. So, I'm unclear as to what your take is on the religion's source. If it began entirely outside of Judaism, why did this religion go out of its way to create Jewish associations? i ask this, particularly, since the Jews were not particularly well-liked in the Roman Empire by the middle of the second century, having staged two revolts, the one from CE 66 to 70 and later, in the 130s, the Bar Kochba revolt.
Here is my take on the origins of Christianity: Jesus, a self-ordained rabbi and messianic pretender - a very minor one - generated a small cult. Alternatively, this Jesus might be a composite o two or more people, or may have been entirely invented by this cult. Paul, at first persecuting the cult, had some sort of conversion experience, hallucinated his revelatory Christ Jesus and essentially created a new religion, albeit one with roots in Jewish messianism and apocalyptic belief, as demonstrated by the Revelation of John of Patmos. This new religion took hold mainly among Hellenized Jews and others in the Aegean region and western Asia Minor.
The gospels were generated - as we both agree - after the destruction of the Temple in CE 70. As I have said many times before, they are almost entirely, if not completely, fiction The Synoptic Gospels and Acts seem to have been in existence by the middle of the second century. John may date from as late as 180.
What I see as a Pauline creation melded Jewish messianism and apocalyptic belief with aspects of dying and rising gods, such Osiris and Dionysus, replete with a virgin birth, etc. I believe this synthesis was achieved by the end of the first century or at least by
ca. 125.
Now, what I'm asking of you, which I don't believe you have yet given, is a timeline and theory of origin, similar to what I just gave above. I assume you have formulated some such idea. I'm interested in hearing what it is. Remember, what I'm asking about is your take on the one form of Christian belief that finally succeeded, not all of all the various Christian cults, such as the Gnostic variations.