Bart Ehrman on the Historical Jesus

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I was struck by this article in Smithsonian Magazine last month

http://www.smithsonianmag.com/histo...-that-Made-America-228072031.html?c=y&page=85

Pocahontas is the most myth-encrusted figure in early America, a romantic “princess” who saves John Smith and the struggling Jamestown colony. But this fairy tale, familiar to millions today from storybook and film, bears little resemblance to the extraordinary young woman who crossed cultures and oceans in her brief and ultimately tragic life.

Pocahontas = mythical figure. Her story is a fairy tale.

Does not mean that Pocahontas did not exist, of course.

Just shows that saying that someone is a mythical figure does not preclude the possibility that there is an actual person behind it. Hence, I don't consider the whole "myther" accusation to be an insult. It's a perfectly reasonable position, that can be applied to Jesus just as easily as Pocahontas.
 
. . . (snip) . . .
Paul's quotes from Jesus are no more directly from Jesus than the parallel Q sayings in Matt./Luke or the sayings that dovetail with those in GMark or GThomas. The only difference is that Paul's come slightly earlier in the textual strata, so they're going to reflect a slightly earlier stage in this "game of telephone" that is typical of half the documentation we have for half the fringe figures of ancient times who were not lucky enough to be kings, generals, etc. That's the only thing that gives Paul's quotes any distinct value.

Look, I'm perfectly familiar with all the rote arguments in response -- Paul never encountered the human Jesus, he says he got his revelation from no man, his commerce with Jesus's own associates was minimal, and bla bla bla. Fact is, I'm not in a minority of college-educated secular readers -- or of secular scholars -- when I read Paul's quotes as reflecting an ongoing process in which he interacted with plenty of Christians both as a persecutor and a defender.

Okay, fine. Then we may well be in agreement that, though Paul says his gospel came from a revelation of Christ, he did have some idea of what the Christian sect believed - he was, after all persecuting them, so, he had to have some idea why he was doing so - and that he may well have unconsciously incorporated such teachings into his revelation.

. . . (large snip . . . In addition, I cannot read Koine Greek. Can you? I read translations and, contextually, I find Paul's discussion of marriage in 1 Corinthians to be a blatant example of Paul's squaring off Jesus remarks that are perfectly familiar to his readers with extra glosses of his own. Your impressions are totally different from that. I don't see any way of bridging that at all. Neither of us can bring any new info to the table.

. . . (mega snip) . . .

Stone

You might find this helpful: You can find online Greek / English interlinear New Testament scriptures in which the passage is first written in Koine Greek in the Greek alphabet, then in Koine Greek transliterated into the Roman alphabet, then a direct translation with no correction for syntax - word order in Koine Greek doesn't seem to have been that important. Finally, the passage is written out as we find in a standard English translation. I found the direct translation quite revealing. For example, speaking of Jesus instituting the eucharist at the Last Supper, 1 Cor. 11:23 says, as we now have it (hiliting added):

For I have received of the Lord that which I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus, on the night he was betrayed took bread . . .

This verse has often been used to show that the betrayal of Jesus by Judas wasn't just invented by the gospel writers, but that Paul, too, knew of the betrayal. However, the two hilited words are different forms of a Greek verb paradidomi, which is translated in the direct translation as "delivered" or "deliverd beside." It can mean "betrayed," but can as easily mean "delivered over," as in "arrested."

You might also get ahold of Strong's AExhaustive Concordance of the Bible, which has Hebrew and Greek words, for each translated word in the Old and New Testaments, respectively, in it's appendix.
 
Tim

and that he may well have unconsciously incorporated such teachings into his revelation.
Or consciously and truthfully stated that Galatians 2:15 ff was his unaided composition, just as he says, while not restricting the range of sources upon which he relied for anything else he writes. There is nothing in that passage or what leads up to it that suggests that everything he has already written or ever will write about issues arising in any Christian community is included in the material that he discusses in that passage.

I have asked you whether you know of another passage that would cover the origin of 1 Corinthians 7: 10-11 as being with Paul alone, unaided by another human being providing him information. You haven't yet pointed to anything. I wonder if perhaps we could now agree that there is no such passage.
 
Tim


Or consciously and truthfully stated that Galatians 2:15 ff was his unaided composition, just as he says, while not restricting the range of sources upon which he relied for anything else he writes. There is nothing in that passage or what leads up to it that suggests that everything he has already written or ever will write about issues arising in any Christian community is included in the material that he discusses in that passage.

I have asked you whether you know of another passage that would cover the origin of 1 Corinthians 7: 10-11 as being with Paul alone, unaided by another human being providing him information. You haven't yet pointed to anything. I wonder if perhaps we could now agree that there is no such passage.

Fine. Your point being . . . ?
 
...


You might find this helpful: You can find online Greek / English interlinear New Testament scriptures in which the passage is first written in Koine Greek in the Greek alphabet, then in Koine Greek transliterated into the Roman alphabet, then a direct translation with no correction for syntax - word order in Koine Greek doesn't seem to have been that important. Finally, the passage is written out as we find in a standard English translation. I found the direct translation quite revealing. For example, speaking of Jesus instituting the eucharist at the Last Supper, 1 Cor. 11:23 says, as we now have it (hiliting added):

For I have received of the Lord that which I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus, on the night he was betrayed took bread . . .

This verse has often been used to show that the betrayal of Jesus by Judas wasn't just invented by the gospel writers, but that Paul, too, knew of the betrayal. However, the two hilited words are different forms of a Greek verb paradidomi, which is translated in the direct translation as "delivered" or "deliverd beside." It can mean "betrayed," but can as easily mean "delivered over," as in "arrested."

You might also get ahold of Strong's AExhaustive Concordance of the Bible, which has Hebrew and Greek words, for each translated word in the Old and New Testaments, respectively, in it's appendix.

Is this the site you had in mind?
http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/mat1.pdf
 
Tim

Fine. Your point being . . . ?
That's it. Paul does not discuss his sources much. Paul's letters as a whole mention ample opportunities for him to learn from ordinary natural sources more than we know today about the earliest stories of a pre-crucifixion Jesus. The earliest ones we do know in collected form, the Gospel of Mark, can be recited, in its entirety, in about two hours. Paul was with Simon-Peter-Cephas for two weeks, to name just one opportunity for full natural transmission of all there was to transmit.

Paul is not writing a treatise, except in Romans. We wouldn't expect anybody to give extensive sources for factual assertions made in business letters, which is what the rest is. The guy says he had visions. Whoop tee do - when Gallup asks modern adults in the US and UK whether they've had visions, 30-50 per cent say yes, depending on how the pollster phrases it (information easily recovered from search). Having visions is a teachable and learnable skill,

http://uncertaintist.wordpress.com/...t-thinking-about-thought-forms-from-stanford/

Paul may have learned that skill along with his Torah... such instruction was plausibly available, and reports of visionary experience abound in the Jewish Bible. Paul might have read Ezekiel 1 and simply taught himself to see God's chariot and all that jazz.

There is nothing, then, in Paul's letters that singles him out as psychologically extraordinary or unduly reliant on hallucinations compared with your neighbors. Nor does be describe himself that way. Having a specific vision, that of the risen Jesus, as the Christ, is a source of authority, not of discourse, in Paul's writing. In the absence of any textual reason to think otherwise, Paul could have gotten his discursive "information" from the loose talk available to anybody else alive at the time, albeit much improved by his exemplary training in the real significance of ghost stories.

So...

With respect to 1 Corinthians 7: 10-11, anybody is well within the scope of fair reading to conclude that it is more likely than not that Paul is alluding to (maybe even quoting in part - although if so, then probably in translation) a teaching which Paul believes to have been presented by a natural Jesus talking to people in the usual way that natural people do talk.

You don't have to agree, obviously, but the inference is entirely reasonable and the passage is reasonably described as evidence in support of the inference, if the assessor takes it that way.
 
And all of the early church fathers, and Josephus...


You think Josephus and “church fathers” personally knew James and knew his family members one of whom was Jesus? Where did any of them ever write to say that?

Or do you really mean that later writers such as Josephus, who’s writing is only known as copies written by Christians 1000 years later, repeated the stories that had once been told by 1st and 2nd century Christians, who as far as we know got the idea from that one line in one letter attributed to Paul around c.55AD (although only actually known as yet another Christian copy actually dating from about 200AD)?

As far as we can tell, the original (earliest) suggestion that someone called “James” was a “lords brother”, appears in that letter of Paul. But there is no evidence that any later writer such as Josephus actually had any other sources of information about who that “James” really was … all those routes lead back to just three words in a 200AD copy of a letter attributed to “Paul”.


That Gospel appears to have been written centuries later with the express purpose of denying that James was Jesus' brother. But the cat was already out of the bag by then.


Written “years later” than what? What date was that gospel of James written? We don’t actually know when any of these gospels, letters or any of it (eg Josephus) was actually written or what any original writing from those authors may have said.

What you are calling the “cat coming out of the bag” is just three words “the lords brother” at the end of an otherwise completed sentence in just one letter attributed to Paul, written in fact by later Christian believers circa 200AD or even later … we don’t have any original writing of Paul to see if the original ever contained those three words. And that’s apart from the fact that he may only have been referring to a brother in faith anyway, and that was something he often did.


Yes the bible is a confusing mish-mash of rewrites, overwrites and spin, which is why we need to rely on extra-biblical sources. Sources that aren't preoccupied by the Blessed Virgin schtick. When you do that, most of the confusion disappears.


Well it’s even worse to rely on non-biblical writing from authors like Josephus and Tacitus, where their writing is only known to us a copying produced by Christians 1000 years later, and where any mention of Jesus (or James etc) can only have been hearsay in any case (ie just repeating what Christians of the time were saying about their religious beliefs).

None of that is the original source of those claims. The earliest known source of any claim about James is the letter of Paul, which is ambiguous on the point anyway. Anyone writing after that, can only be said to be repeating Paul’s remark as hearsay, unless the later writer is presenting his version as credible first hand original witness…and none of the later writers are doing anything remotely like that.


I didn't say it was surprising. But if they knew Paul's Gospel, they knew it was about a god-man called Jesus. If Jesus never existed, James, Cephas and John (apostles before Paul), would no doubt be aware of that fact. Don't you think?


No! lol :D. No, they certainly would not be “aware that Jesus never actually existed” … like Paul, they merely believed that a messiah who they called Yehoshua had once existed. But like Paul, they did not know this messiah, they thought he had died at some unknown time in the past.

I think you are mixing up, and confusing, what was later written in the gospels claiming various named people as personal witness disciples of Jesus, with Paul’s letters which afaik do not describe any personal named disciples of Jesus as in any way credible living witnesses who told Paul anything at all about what they personally did with Jesus.

Eg, James would only know if Jesus was real if he was indeed his family brother. But we have no evidence that any such thing was true at all. And James apparently never said any such thing, and never said anything about it to Paul either! So it’s a huge error if anyone then says “oh well, James must have known Jesus, hence Jesus must be real” (incidentally, Bart Ehrman actually does say that. In fact, astonishingly, that is his main proof for saying Jesus definitely existed) that would be utter nonsense because we certainly do not have any evidence whatsoever that anyone called James really was a family brother of anyone called “Jesus”.

And the same applies to the gospels where they talk of named disciples being with Jesus when Jesus performs his constant miracles. That is - these are claims made by anonymous gospel authors writing long after the claimed events, but where there is no evidence at all that any of those named disciples ever knew any messiah called Jesus at all.

And to make matters even worse, if you read the short book by Randel Helms, you can see straight away where those gospel stories of Jesus were taken from what the gospel writers believed was God's truth written centuries earlier in their OT.



You missed the point that Paul's Gospel is about Jesus. It's irrelevant whether or not James was his brother, as a disciple of Jesus he should be aware of whether or not Jesus was a man. Paul's Gospel includes things like; "He was born of a woman under the law", "died and was buried" etc, not things you would say about a spiritual being. No one takes Paul to task for humanising an abstract concept of "salvation", they took him to task for preaching against the Law.


I don’t know what you are trying to say there. If you are saying James must have known Jesus because he was a personal disciple of Jesus, then we have to ask what is the evidence to show that anyone called James was ever a disciple of any messiah called Jesus? I don’t know of any credible evidence for that anywhere in all of written history, do you?

As far as Paul’s words saying “He was born of a woman under the law, died and was buried" etc”, that is something which Paul himself says he believes from the theology of the OT … he specifically says that he never got any such information about Jesus from any man … he specifically says he knew it from what he believed was the correct interpretation of the OT.

But if you watched that clip of bible historian John Huddleston in conversation with Richard Dawkins, then you will notice that Huddleston says that almost all such revered figures at that time, eg messiah figures, gods, great leaders etc., were said to be born of a woman but with a god as their father! That was the standard claim for anyone who was regarded as a great historical leader of the people … you could presumably check to see if Huddleston is right about that.

Paul is not talking about any real earthly events that he personally knew of, or at least he gives zero evidence to support any such idea, he is talking about what he believes as OT theology, and that is what he is preaching. And he says that directly and specifically throughout his letters.


He doesn't tell us what he had for breakfast every day, either. Can we assume from that that he never ate breakfast? ..


Well it has to be true that Paul would need to eat to survive as a human being, so I would not question it if he said he ate breakfast every day. However, the existence of a prophesised messiah who rises from the dead in front of 500 people and floats off to join his father in a heavenly sky from where they “speak” to Paul and the gospel writers etc., is (unlike eating to survive) not something that has to be true, is it!

On the contrary, it’s something that, unlike your breakfast, cannot possibly be true … although it’s very useful here to keep clearly in mind that in the 1st century everyone did think that such miracles really did happen every day, they did not question such claims at all, they were quite certain that messiahs, gods, devils, demons, angels, spirits and miracles were all around them every day … so these stories were something the people were only too ready to believe and repeat (even though none of them actually saw any such things themselves) … and the only reason we are not taking those details literally today, is because we now accept that modern science has long since shown that miracles stories like that cannot be true.


He says that James and Cephas and John were following Jesus before he was. He says that Pilate killed Jesus. He calls James "The Lord's Brother". He knew when Pilate was governor, he must have had some idea how old these people were. ..


Well, just be very careful about that. Because when you say that Paul says those things, what you really mean is Christian copies of letters written from about 200AD onwards say that Paul once wrote/said those things. We don’t actually know if Paul wrote any of those things, because by that date we are getting it only from Christian copies where by then it’s agreed by everyone that the religious copyists were altering things to add details that they had later come to believe about a legendary messiah that none of them had ever known.

However, that general caveat aside - you are still repeating that “James” was actually the real brother of Jesus, even though we have just discussed how contentious and uncertain that is. So really I think that argument is a non-starter for all the reasons given here so many times before. It is certainly far from being reliable evidence that anyone called “Paul” ever knew anyone who was actually ever a family brother of Jesus.

As far as James, Cephas and John following Jesus, what does that actually mean? Does it mean, as you are suggesting, that Paul knew these individuals were personal companions of a living Jesus? I don’t think that’s a plausible conclusion at all. For a start Paul gives no credible evidence of any of those “followers” telling Paul anything at all about their escapades with a living Jesus - there is simply no reliable or credible evidence that Paul (or anyone else) knew anything believable from any “followers“ of Jesus. And that’s apart from the obvious fact that terms like “followers”, “apostles”, “disciples”, “brothers”, “brethren” etc. were far more often being used simply to mean followers of the faith, not people who tagged along behind Jesus whilst he was walking about!

And then we come to claims about Pilate. Hmm. Well where does that claim actually come from? In fact afaik it comes from 1-Timothy, which is one of the universally agreed “fake” letters not actually written by Paul at all. And that’s apart from the aforementioned fact that we are talking only about Christian copies written 150 years and more after Paul had died (nearly 200 years or more after Jesus was supposed to have died), where the copyists were by that time known to be making all sorts of alterations to the biblical writing wherever they thought something needed to added according to their evolving religious beliefs.



Do you think he means they were following a teacher called "Jesus" without actually meeting a teacher called "Jesus"? I don't..


See above re words like “following”, and what such terms might have meant, or who actually wrote such things at what date.



Well, there are the epistles of James and Jude. There is evidence, just not direct evidence.


Well it’s not evidence of Jesus. It may be evidence of all sorts of other things, such as evidence that religious fanatics wrote things like this 2000 years ago. But that is not evidence that what they wrote about an impossible supernatural messiah was ever actually true.

Can you think of, or provide, anything which is actually reliable credible evidence of a real living Jesus? Anything at all? Because, in point of fact, I can’t actually think of anything.

Now you might say, as most apologists in these threads have said at various times, that the request for actual firm evidence is unreasonable and that we don’t ever have such clear evidence for any figures in ancient history, but afaik that is 100% untrue nonsense. Julius Caesar is the most common example where apologists try to say that the evidence of his existence is no better than that for Jesus, but at risk of letting myself in for a thankless task, and possibly an embarrassing apology, I’m willing to bet I can find masses of credible evidence for Julius Caesar. But for Jesus? … No,…
apparently no real evidence at all.
 
Now you might say, as most apologists in these threads have said at various times, that the request for actual firm evidence is unreasonable and that we don’t ever have such clear evidence for any figures in ancient history, but afaik that is 100% untrue nonsense. Julius Caesar is the most common example where apologists try to say that the evidence of his existence is no better than that for Jesus, but at risk of letting myself in for a thankless task, and possibly an embarrassing apology, I’m willing to bet I can find masses of credible evidence for Julius Caesar. But for Jesus? … No,…
apparently no real evidence at all.

We have evidence that Julius Caesar invented the combover. We have no evidence concerning the mythical Jesus, just some stories in an old book.
 
Tim . . . (mega-snip . . .


There is nothing, then, in Paul's letters that singles him out as psychologically extraordinary or unduly reliant on hallucinations compared with your neighbors. Nor does be describe himself that way. Having a specific vision, that of the risen Jesus, as the Christ, is a source of authority, not of discourse, in Paul's writing. In the absence of any textual reason to think otherwise, Paul could have gotten his discursive "information" from the loose talk available to anybody else alive at the time, albeit much improved by his exemplary training in the real significance of ghost stories.

. . . (snip) . . .

Are you sure? How about 1 Cor. 14:18: "I thank my God I speak with tongues more than you all." Admittedly, speaking in tongues isn't exactly the same as having hallucinations. However, when one is speaking in tongues it's supposed to mean that one is to some degree possessed by the Holy Spirit.
 
Are you sure? How about 1 Cor. 14:18: "I thank my God I speak with tongues more than you all." Admittedly, speaking in tongues isn't exactly the same as having hallucinations. However, when one is speaking in tongues it's supposed to mean that one is to some degree possessed by the Holy Spirit.

Or another kind of spirit.
 
You think Josephus and “church fathers” personally knew James and knew his family members one of whom was Jesus? Where did any of them ever write to say that?

Or do you really mean that later writers such as Josephus, who’s writing is only known as copies written by Christians 1000 years later, repeated the stories that had once been told by 1st and 2nd century Christians, who as far as we know got the idea from that one line in one letter attributed to Paul around c.55AD (although only actually known as yet another Christian copy actually dating from about 200AD)?

Are we really going through all this again? You've had answers to these questions. Many times. The answers haven't changed since last time.

{major snip}
Now you might say, as most apologists in these threads have said at various times, that the request for actual firm evidence is unreasonable and that we don’t ever have such clear evidence for any figures in ancient history, but afaik that is 100% untrue nonsense. Julius Caesar is the most common example where apologists try to say that the evidence of his existence is no better than that for Jesus, but at risk of letting myself in for a thankless task, and possibly an embarrassing apology, I’m willing to bet I can find masses of credible evidence for Julius Caesar. But for Jesus? … No,…
apparently no real evidence at all.

Jesus wasn't Emperor of Rome.

But you are obviously a total expert on all of this stuff, so why not publish a peer reviewed paper on the subject? It's not me you have to convince, it's the Historians. Once you've done that, then you can convince me.

It's no good just shouting about this stuff on message forums. You can prove them all wrong Ian, what are you waiting for? Fame and fortune await...
 
Jesus wasn't Emperor of Rome.

But you are obviously a total expert on all of this stuff, so why not publish a peer reviewed paper on the subject? It's not me you have to convince, it's the Historians. Once you've done that, then you can convince me.

It's no good just shouting about this stuff on message forums. You can prove them all wrong Ian, what are you waiting for? Fame and fortune await...

All one needs to prove an existential question is a single, solitary confirmation of existence. None have been provided for Jesus. As you can't prove a. Negative, may or may not have existed. Same for any other mythological being, Bigfoot, etc...
 
All one needs to prove an existential question is a single, solitary confirmation of existence. None have been provided for Jesus. As you can't prove a. Negative, may or may not have existed. Same for any other mythological being, Bigfoot, etc...

But The Mythical Jesus is a positive claim. It claims that the first followers of Jesus worshipped an incorporeal being they called "Jesus". Now all we need to find is evidence of anyone ever anywhere worshipping such a Jesus. So far no evidence of any such group has been found.

No one is being asked to prove a negative.
 
Tim

However, when one is speaking in tongues it's supposed to mean that one is to some degree possessed by the Holy Spirit.
There's nothing about possession in the passage you cited. If we include the few preceding and the next following verses (14-19; your verse italicized):

If I pray in a tongue, my spirit is at prayer but my mind is unproductive.

So what is to be done? I will pray with the spirit, but I will also pray with the mind. I will sing praise with the spirit, but I will also sing praise with the mind.

Otherwise, if you pronounce a blessing [with] the spirit, how shall one who holds the place of the uninstructed say the “Amen” to your thanksgiving, since he does not know what you are saying?

For you may be giving thanks very well, but the other is not built up.

I give thanks to God that I speak in tongues more than any of you,

but in the church I would rather speak five words with my mind, so as to instruct others also, than ten thousand words in a tongue.



None of that seems psychologically extraordinary, nor havng anything to do with being possessed by any spirit, nor being a way Paul found out what Jesus is reputed to have said about divorce and remarriage.

Sounds like a way to pray, and Paul seems to prefer using it for private prayer rather in church. I've heard of that in modern times, too, praying aloud but not in actual words. John Belushi used to do his Samurai skits that way - which is psychologically interesting, that mimicry of language production can accomplish communication, but neither extraordinary nor a symptom of disease.

The breath control involved can also get you high. I sense that a good deal of what Paul sold was getting high while waiting for your flight lesson with Jesus. So, daffyd may be closer to the truth than he intended.
 
No, impressions do not have to play a part unless you feel under some compulsion to argue for Jesus' existence.

That's baloney. Specialized professional Greek scholars read passages like the Paul chapter on marriage as indicating a presumed degree of familiarity with Jesus's remarks on the part of Paul's readers. One cannot get away from dealing in educated impressions right there. But fringe proselytizers with an axe to grind insist that their impressions are that nothing Paul writes about Jesus references any human interaction at all. So their impressions and those of today's professional scholars are at polar extremes. Once one tackles a disagreement like this, impressions are front and center. Some impressions may be INFORMED impressions reflecting years of in-depth study in the cultural and linguistic ways of an ancient time. Other impressions may reflect wishful thinking only. But it's all impressions.

And if you want to ad-hom your way through imputations of "compulsion", modern bloggers like the mythers trying to discredit decades of painstaking secular scholarship are obviously much more irrationally compulsive than professional researchers generating peer-vetted scholarship under the most rigorous conditions.

Stone



The people who you are appealing to as “expert academics” are not, however, typical of university lecturers in any other field of study, and certainly a million miles away from genuinely impartial objective lecturers in mainstream univ. science departments for example, where accuracy and real evidence counts, and where guesswork and wishful thinking does not count.

We have been over this many times before, but briefly - if you check the academic background and the upbringing since childhood of the people who write as authorities claiming overwhelming evidence of Jesus as a real person, they almost always seem to have been religious believers in their younger lives, almost all seem to have decided to study religious issues at college and university, and then ended up teaching the same religious issues in various educational establishments of different sorts.

The “authorities” appear to be composed of four distinct groups of people. First you have a large number of writers who are simply devout practicing Christians who have a life-long belief in Jesus, God, and Christian worship. Next you have a large number of individuals (especially in the USA) teaching in specifically religious institutes such as schools of divinity and theological colleges. Thirdly you have individuals who are genuinely lecturing at real universities, but in specifically religious departments or religious wings of other departments (eg religious studies wings of history departments). And finally you have, what I suspect is a much smaller number of people, who are genuine university academics working in mainstream history departments or related university departments (such as linguistics).


If this were some other more objective field such as mainstream science, then I would be the first to say that an “appeal to authority” was a very good thing to do. Ie, you certainly should appeal to people like Stephen Hawking if you want to cite real experts on theoretical physics and the Big Bang etc.

But religious studies and the historicity of Jesus is about a far as you can get from a truly objective impartial area of academic university study. It is most definitely not a field populated by impartial authorities. On the contrary, as I say, if you check the background of these “scholars” you often find that most, if not all, are steeped in religious belief. Nor is this a truly objective field of research either, because a great deal of what is claimed as “certain fact”, is most definitely nothing more than guesswork and wishful thinking … example - Bart Ehrman says it is literally “certain” that Jesus "definitely" existed. But his main evidence for that “certainty”, as he actually admits in his latest book, is simply that he believes what is written in the bible when Paul says he met "the lords brother"! That’s his main evidence … he believes it because it says so in the bible! Or, take the words of John Dominic Crossan (and others) who actually say that just about the most certain evidential fact in all of ancient history is that Jesus was crucified. Crossan may believe that Jesus was crucified, but the evidence for that is again only that it says so in the bible … in fact, it only says so in much later Christian copies of gospels that were later put together centuries afterwards to form a bible.

In a subject where you have very prominent “authorities” like Ehrman and Crossan writing like that claiming to know about Jesus as a matter of “certain” fact, then it’s no wonder that people with a more objective education are unimpressed by the so-called “evidence”.


But it's all impressions.


What we'd like to see is not the "impressions", but some actual credible evidence.
 
Are we really going through all this again? You've had answers to these questions. Many times. The answers haven't changed since last time.



Jesus wasn't Emperor of Rome.

But you are obviously a total expert on all of this stuff, so why not publish a peer reviewed paper on the subject? It's not me you have to convince, it's the Historians. Once you've done that, then you can convince me.

It's no good just shouting about this stuff on message forums. You can prove them all wrong Ian, what are you waiting for? Fame and fortune await...


OK, so you are stumped and don't have any answers then. Fine by me :D.
 
The people who you are appealing to as “expert academics” are not, however, typical of university lecturers in any other field of study, and certainly a million miles away from genuinely impartial objective lecturers in mainstream univ. science departments for example, where accuracy and real evidence counts, and where guesswork and wishful thinking does not count.
...

That's right, every one of them has drunk the Kool aid. Not one of those spineless Historians will stand up for the Truthtm!

They are all just shills for the Vatican...:rolleyes:
 
OK, so you are stumped and don't have any answers then. Fine by me :D.

You've had all the answers a hundred times. Just because you refuse to accept them doesn't mean they are wrong.

You still need to convince actual Historians, why waste time on me?
 
That's right, every one of them has drunk the Kool aid. Not one of those spineless Historians will stand up for the Truthtm!

They are all just shills for the Vatican...:rolleyes:



Not at all. No doubt there are hundreds of them who are very sensible and know a great deal about the history of Judeo-Christian religion.

But this is not an objective field of study to begin with. This is a field of study which is based in religious beliefs about the supernatural ... that's what the biblical writing is all about.

You can of course try to study what was said about Jesus in non-Christian more historical writing of that time. But as soon as you do that you find that almost none of the historical writers of the time even mentioned anyone called Jesus. And the few that did mention him, such as Tacitus and Josephus, not only made no more the very briefest of passing mention, but were plainly and unarguably only writing hearsay repetition of what Christians themselves preached and believed at that time (about 100 years after they all thought the messiah had died).
 
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