Of course it was a “List”. It was a list of about 10 items, the first 7 or so of which actually seemed to all be the same claim.
What? “Paul gives some details of the appearances of Jesus” and “The appearances subject was a weapon of power in the Early Christianity” are the same claim? You must be joking!
Well that reply highlighted above, appears to have absolutely nothing at all to do with the fact that you posted a list of claims (see below), and it (the highlight) appears to be just your own words and not anything I ever wrote at all. You seem to be now just arguing with what you posted yourself!
Below is the “List” you posted earlier - that is a “list” … it’s 10 numbered items listed in numerical order. I have no idea why you are trying to say it was not a “list”.
My argument is done. I am tired to repeat it again and again. But I am going to schematize it for politeness:
1. Paul affirms that his gospel comes from the Bible and revelation .
2. Paul gives some details of the appearances of Jesus (when and who).
3. He explicitly excludes the Bible as the source of these details.
4. It is very unlikely these details come from revelation (ecstatic?).
5. It is very likely that the appearances come from another source.
6. The appearances subject was a weapon of power in the Early Christianity.
7. Paul had an important reason to highlight the direct sources of his gospel and dismissed the actual human sources. That is to say, he pretended the rank of "apostle".
8. First conclusion: Paul had more natural sources that those he would like to admit.
9. The appearances and the crucifixion matters were connected by force.
10. Second conclusion: Paul got some accounts about the crucifixion from human telling.
.
I don’t know what you mean by “vesicles”, but if you mean that Paul does not add the words “according to scripture” after every single mention he ever makes of anything we might now wish to discuss from each line in his letters 2000 years later, then that is clearly an absurd demand. .
Not after every single mention, but in this case we ought to do it, because Paul excludes explicitly these words in the last sentences. It is a significant exclusion. And yes, a good analysis of a text includes considering all the problematic or significant sentences, above all those that provoke divergent interpretations. What can we do if the critical rationalism is tiring? If you cannot keep the pace you can resign.
NOTA BENE:
"versicles" = "verses"; incorrect translation from Latin. Sorry. .
Well first of all - it’s not up to you to tell me or anyone here that they should leave the thread, ie as you say “resign”, saying triumphantly (for some inexplicable reason) that others cannot keep up with your pace etc. Remarks like that are just plain silly.
And what is this nonsense about some words in one particular sentence not being immediately preceded or immediately succeed by Paul saying the words came from scripture? As if that were somehow evidence that the words must have actually come from people who had really met a living Jesus.
Because that is what we are arguing about here. I.e.
Craig’s insistence that people in Jerusalem had personally met Jesus, and that they were hence the ones who had to tell Paul about Jesus.
The argument is NOT about whether people in Jerusalem might have discussed their religious beliefs with Paul. Of course they might have done. But that is not in any sense evidence to support Craig's constant claim that those people had really known Jesus.
The fact that those people in Jerusalem may have told Paul that they too had seen visions of the messiah is totally irrelevant. They might have claimed all sorts of visions and beliefs and told Paul about that. But that is not any kind of evidence that any of them had known a living Jesus … and THAT is the argument here, i.e. did they really know a living Jesus!
And that is apart from the fact that afaik, none of those other people ever reliably wrote to say they had witnessed any such visions anyway. If they did have visions, then we have no idea what they claimed those visions actually were. They might for example, if they existed at all (the supposed visions), been quite different to Paul’s vision, and not thought to have been identifying the same messiah that Paul had identified as “Jesus” … they might have just told Paul (if they told him anything) that they too had been blessed with visionary insights and understanding from God. Afaik, we don’t know what or who any of those people ever credibly claimed to see in any visions.
Why do you say such a silly thing as that? I did not say anything of the kind. I did not say that I “accept Paul's version of his quarrels with the Jerusalem circle as the only truth”. Where did I ever say any such thing? Can you quote me saying that, please? .
“We do not need to guess. Because Paul's letters are very,
very, clear on his source of Jesus belief.”
“…is something again directly and even more explicitly declaring that he definitely did not get his beliefs about Jesus from that Jerusalem group”.
And so on.
Perhaps you didn’t express accurately. Or perhaps “very, very clear” and “more explicitly declaring” doesn’t mean the same in Spanish. If I don’t understand English worse than I think, you have maintained that if Paul says he never obtained any information from de Jerusalem circle then he never obtained any information of the Jerusalem circle. It is not so? If this is not to trust absolutely in Paul’s words I don’t understand your English..
I don’t have to trust absolutely in Paul’s words. I don’t have to do anything like that. It is more than sufficient to point out that none of those people in Jerusalem ever wrote to reliably claim that they had met Jesus or that they were the ones who told Paul about Jesus (as if Paul would never have known about Jesus unless those people had told him). There is no evidence that any of those people in Jerusalem were Paul’s source of belief in Jesus, and none of those people ever wrote to say any such thing.
Paul’s letters say the complete contrary. The words in the physically surviving P46 are crystal clear in saying that Paul got his Jesus beliefs, i.e. the “gospel” that he preached about Jesus (which was very little at all about Jesus, actually, just 4 things iirc), from his religious faith in God granting him visions and granting to him, ie
"revealing" to him, the
"true" understanding of scripture
"hidden so long".
If you claim that people in Jerusalem had met a living Jesus, then where is your evidence for that?
If you are only making the completely pointless and trivial speculation that religious fanatics in Jerusalem may have discussed their beliefs with Paul, and Paul may have repeated that when saying that others before him had also claimed to see visions of their messiah, then so what? That is not evidence that any of thus people ever met a living Jesus and were hence somehow the source of telling Paul about a real Jesus. And it is in any case NOT what we were arguing about at all! …
… the argument is over Craig’s repeated insistence that those people in Jerusalem had actually met a living Jesus, and that they were thereby the source of what Paul believed about Jesus, i.e. because Paul had been told that by people who had actually met Jesus. That was the argument!
Be clear about what I had said to Craig about that - I specifically did not say that Paul could not have discussed his religious beliefs with James, Cephas, Others, in Jerusalem. On the contrary I immediately said that (quoting from memory) “of course
Paul and the others may very well discussed their religious beliefs. But that is a million miles away from Craig’s insistence that those people had actually met a living Jesus and were thus the source of Paul’s knowledge of Jesus”.
It is strange. James, “the brother of the Lord” had never met the Lord and needed Paul to tell him stories about his brother. Strange, very strange.
Good grief - you are now actually reduced that same argument that Bart Ehrman was reduced to in his book, when he said that he believed Jesus was real because it said so in the bible where it said that Paul met James “the lords brother!?
How many times have we discussed those three words “the Lords brother”? We have discussed that to absolute death here.
The words do not definitively claim that James was a family blood-brother of a human Jesus. There are multiple very obvious objections to those final 3 words at the end of that sentence, and we have discussed all those objections here scores of times before! And you now want to waste everyone’s time going over all those objections yet again? You are deliberately wasting everyone’s time, whilst still failing ever to produce any genuine reliable or credible evidence of a human Jesus.
However, for the record -
1. The earliest known copy of Paul’s letters with that sentence is P46, which probably dates from c.200AD. So we don’t know if Paul ever wrote those final three words , because it only appears in a Christian religious copy written 150 years after Paul had died!
2. The sentence actually is (from memory) “other apostles saw I none, save James, the lords brother”. Grammatically that sentence was actually complete without any of those final highlighted 5 words. Those final few words are added in the form of an “afterthought”, as if saying “I saw nobody else …oh except for James … oh I should add that he was the lords brother”. So the grammatical structure and the position of the words at the end of that sentence makes it a natural place for any later scribe to add either just the final 3 words “the lords brother”, and/or the final 5 words “save James, the lords brother”.
3. It is by no means clear that the final three words mean a family blood brother anyway. As Ellegard and others have pointed out - Paul often uses the term brother, brothers, and brethren, but far more often to mean brothers in religious belief than to mean actual family members.
4. Paul’s letter refers to this “James” as an “Apostle”, not a “disciple” of Jesus. Paul refers to himself as an “apostle”, he describes all sorts of believers as “apostles”, though clearly none of them had met Jesus except in their religious visions. As Ellegard again points out ; in Paul’s usage the word “apostle” just means a brother in the faith, a fellow believer “called” by God to preach their gospel. It does not mean the same as “disciple”, which iirc in Paul’s usage (according to Ellegard) means someone who was believed to have personally accompanied Jesus. That much according to Ellegard at least (in a carefully written, carefully researched and fully referenced book, so I expect he is probably right about that).
5. It is not clear who this person “James” actually was. That is - there are several different people named “James” in the NT biblical writing (epistles and gospels), and they are at various times mixed-up by the biblical writers such that they appear not to know which person “James” they actually meant in certain sentences (again, see Ellegard Ch-11 on that, and I can quote him and give the page refs etc if necessary, though I have given it all before). On which point, iirc even
Eight-Bits here has also explained why he thinks that particular passage in Paul’s letters is not referring to the same person “James” who people thought it was (ask
Eight-Bits about that).
6. The same person “James” was supposed to have written his own “epistle”. But in that epistle (again according to Ellegard), this same James makes no such claim to ever have been the actual brother of Jesus. Nor, iirc, doe he even ever claim to have met any living Jesus!
7. Apparently (according to Ellegard), that single mention in Galations is the one and only time Paul describes James as the “Lords brother”. It is never mentioned again anywhere else by Paul.
In fact Ellegard (Jesus, One Hundred Years Before Christ) has a whole chapter on the issue of James “the Lords Brother” (Ch-11), in which he points out that in the gospels and in Acts there is enormous confusions over various figures named “James”, such that it seems the authors did not actually know which of several different people named “James” they were referring to. And where a further confusion arises over the name “Mary”, supposedly the mother of Jesus, but where again all sorts of different people named “Mary” become mixed-up with one-another, to the point where Ellegard concludes saying this -
“ the whole idea of identifying James with the a physical brother of Jesus, as I have argued, is due to Eusebius attempts to make sense of Luke’s confused presentation in Act’s-12. Owing to Luke’s mistake in having James the apostle killed in the beginning of that chapter, Eusebius thought, logically enough, that all subsequent mentions of James in Acts must mean somebody else. He concluded that this person was the Jerusalem church leader whom Paul, in Galations 1;19, called “James” the brother of the Lord”. And further he says ….”the fact that Luke himself never says anything about James being Jesus’ brother (or for that matter, the Lord’s brother), is a telling indication that he, at least, never thought he was.” (Ellegard, p238, Ch-11).
Below is a link to some comments and explanation on all of that from sceptical writer Neil Godfrey (I will save space here by not quoting Godfrey, you can just read it for yourself) -
http://vridar.org/2010/05/02/applying-sound-historical-methodology-to-james-the-brother-of-the-lord/
Applying Sound Historical Methodology to “James the Brother of the Lord”
by Neil Godfrey
But I will quote the following shorter piece from Richard Carrier writing as a reply to HJ believer James McGrath on this issue of talking literally those final three words
“the lords brother” to mean a family member of a human Jesus -
http://freethoughtblogs.com/carrier...hard+Carrier+Blogs)&utm_content=Google+Reader
That leaves one last thing (that same thing I covered last the first time)…
James the (Adopted/Biological?) Brother of the Lord
I argued that all Christians were “brothers of the Lord” because: (a) they were all adopted sons of God, (b) Jesus was an adopted son of God, and (c) that by definition made them all the adopted brothers of Jesus; and (d) Christians called each other brother, therefore they would have called each other brothers of Jesus, too. I also showed (e) that they believed Jesus had explicitly called them his brothers and (f) they explicitly said Jesus was only “the firstborn among many brethren.” Another important point I made is that Jesus became Lord at his adoption, so Christians would be brothers of the Lord specifically, a uniquely Christian concept (and one that could only have been uttered after the origins of Christianity; e.g., even if James was the biological brother of Jesus, he would never have been called “the brother of the Lord” until Christians invented that phrase for him).
McGrath does not challenge any of the above (which is fortunate, because it is all proved conclusively from passages in Paul, which I cited profusely). The argument then follows: all Christians were the brothers of the Lord; so it would be confusing ….
That above explanation from Carrier continues far longer than just the above (go to the link and try reading it). But the point is not that I agree specifically with Carrier on why he is sceptical about those three words, nor even that I fully agree with Ellegard. The point is that numerous authors such as these have pointed out why it is obviously very unwise to assume those three words could only mean that the person “James” (which “James”?) was actually a flesh-&-blood brother of a human Jesus.
Also, see the following from Rational-Wiki (I will avoid taking more space reproducing it here, you can check it yourself)-
http://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Jesus_myth_theory
Please … Dominic Crossan is a total religious fanatic and former priest (iirc), who’s entire life from even earliest childhood has been spent absolutely drowning in religious belief. Please do not quote Crossan to us as any kind of objective neutral party on the issues of belief in Jesus historicity.
How do you know that someone is a “fanatic”?
Rational discussion becomes impossible if we disqualify a priori everybody who has different beliefs than ours.
In the same vein I can refuse to discuss with you because you are a “fanatic” positivist and I am not.
I disagree with the main lines of Crossan’s beliefs, but I think some of his arguments are interesting. I know this because I have read some of his books and I know what I am saying. You cannot have any justified opinion about Crossan’s ideas if you have not read them. Sorry, but your position is the most classical intolerance. Very far of rational criticism.
OK, - well here is the religious background of Dominic Crossan. Please do not try to claim this is a person whose is neutral and objective on the subject of his Jesus belief -
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_Dominic_Crossan
John Dominic Crossan (born February 17, 1934[1] is an Irish-American New Testament scholar, historian of early Christianity, and former Catholic priest who has produced both scholarly and popular works. His research has focused on the historical Jesus, on the anthropology of the Ancient Mediterranean and New Testament worlds and on the application of postmodern hermeneutical approaches to the Bible.
Life -
Crossan was born in Nenagh, Co. Tipperary, Ireland.Though his father was a banker, Crossan was steeped in the rural Irish life, which he experienced through frequent visits to the home of his paternal grandparents. On graduation from Saint Eunan's College, a boarding high school, in 1950, Crossan joined the Servites, a Catholic religious order, and moved to the United States. He was trained at Stonebridge Seminary, Lake Bluff, Illinois, then ordained a priest in 1957. Crossan returned to Ireland, where he earned his Doctor of Divinity in 1959 at St. Patrick's College Maynooth, the Irish national seminary. He then completed two more years of study in biblical languages at the Pontifical Biblical Institute in Rome. In 1965 Crossan began two additional years of study (in archaeology) at the Ecole Biblique in Jordanian East Jerusalem. During this time, he travelled through several countries in the region, escaping just days before the outbreak of the Six Day War of 1967.[2]
After a year at St. Mary of the Lake Seminary in Mundelein, Illinois, and a year at Catholic Theological Union in Chicago, Crossan chose to resign his priesthood. In the fall of 1969 he joined the faculty of DePaul University, where he taught undergraduates Comparative Religion for twenty-five years until retiring in 1995. In 1985, Crossan and Robert Funk founded the Jesus Seminar, a group of academics studying the historical Jesus, and Crossan served as co-chair for its first decade. Crossan also served as president of the Chicago Society of Biblical Research in 1978-1979, and as president of the Society of Biblical Literature in 2012.
Crossan married Margaret Dagenais, a professor at Loyola University Chicago in the summer of 1969. She died in 1983 due to a heart attack. In 1986, Crossan married Sarah Sexton, a social worker with two grown children. Since his retirement from academia, Crossan has lived in the Orlando, Florida, area, remaining active in research, writing, and teaching seminars.[citation needed]