David
This is strange. I have always heard of Paul speaking about Jesus as a heavenly entity which came down to the Earth and died to erase our sins.
Not strange at all. Paul wrote that Jesus was a man born to a Jewish woman, who died, and then later was exalted by God. Paul promises to his readers, all of his readers, that whatever Jesus essentially is, they, too, shall be soon. In the interim, Jesus needs a dwelling because he is situated, and it's heaven. Everybody has to be somewhere, and Jesus bigger than hell isn't here.
If you would like to pursue with me such other subjects as Paul's views on Jewish pre-existence and how human sacrifice comports with Judaism, then I shall need chapter and verse, since I have no way of knowing what you have "always heard."
Yes, I know a lot of Gods suffering and dying, but this has nothing to do with the argument of difficulty I have defended here.
Actually, it does. You have proposed that a Jewish man's hideous death was in some way an impediment to the eventual development of a Gentile story about him being a god. Putting aside that it didn't prevent the development (the hideous death story is older than the god story), hideous death is just the sort of thing we find in Indo-European divine stories whether the divinity is "in the sense of part of a god, adopted by a god, 'sponsored' by a god, or similar."
Who are you to pontificate on what anyone else does or doesn't understand? I understand you just fine. I disagree with you. Hercules and Julius Caesar were features of the same culture with each other (they are both god-descended characters in the same book, Ovid's
Metamorphoses), and that culture was where the Jesus story took hold. Wotan arises from the same Indo-European rootstock as Greece and Rome.
“Hanging in a tree” doesn't make any reference to the crucifixion in Deuteronomy 21 18-23.
Why is that my problem? Paul is the one who asserts that the situations are parallel. Take it up with him. In the meantime, however, spare us the BS that Paul didn't cite scripture, as he read it, to support his views about Jesus' crucifixion. He got it wrong, or stretched the point, or saw prophetic intent where none was presented? No Shinola, Sherlock. But the Jewish scriptures were an antecedent and an influence, and Paul lavishly acknowledged them as such.
It is like when
Matthew tells us
Isaiah predicted that Mary would have Jesus and sex in the wrong order. Mattie read his source flatly wrong, but there is no question what his source was. If we are discussing the root of the idea that Mary was a virgin mother, then we take Mattie's reading as he tells us he read it, not how we read the same passages ourselves.
max
I don't see that any new issue was raised in your reply. A shared feature of most hypothesized historical Jesuses who count is that their subject helped launch Christianity. If not, if there is no such person, then the hypotheses are false, and no more needs to be said about them. If instead, some of the hypotheses are true, then their subject need have done no more in all the other days of his life than Rosa Parks did on all except one day in hers. That is, to have acquired acquaintances who would impute meaning to a dramatic, but not especially unusual, event, thereby launching something with a life of its own.