You can't make a claim about what someone is arguing, and then say you don't care what he thinks. Tim O'Neill did NOT deny that there were religious objections to Galileo, only that there were scientific ones as well. You have strawmanned him, and based your responses on that strawman.
"The terms of Bruno's conviction are not known with certainty." But YOU are the one to claim that Bruno was persecuted for promoting heliocentrism. There is no evidence for that. Bruno's idea of infinite worlds does not support heliocentrism. Roman-era philosophers like Plutarch proposed something similar, without the need to invoke heliocentrism.
David, this does seem to be a pattern with you, I'm sorry to say. You throw out something, then say it can't be known with certainty, and then ignore evidence against the idea. Again, read Tim O'Neill's article on Bruno, where he cites scholars to build his conclusion.
If Bruno believed in heliocentrism, and he wasn't charged with heresy for this (and that seems to be the case), then it adds support to the idea that Copernicus's theory wasn't overly controversial until Galileo.
Yes, the problem of parallax. And yet you claimed just earlier 'It is not true that the opposition to Galileo was "scientific"'.
But there were more non-theological reasons than just parallax, including:
(1) Stars would have to be incredibly huge
(2) The model of a rotating earth was disputed due to the lack of then-observable eastward deflections in falling bodies (though this objection came a few years after Galileo)
(3) Galileo proposed that the tides were physical proof that the earth rotated. His contemporary Johannes Kepler believed that it was the moon that caused the tides. Galileo's theory was shown to be wrong because there were two tides a day rather than one (which was implied if a rotating earth was the cause of the tides.)
Then you have conceded the point as far as I can see. I have been arguing against the idea that more scientific knowledge results in more religious conflicts. My argument isn't wrong because you want to argue something else!
It has been very frustrating trying to argue with you, David. Evidence gets ignored and the goal posts moved. You strawmanned Tim O'Neill's points and my "personal argument". I'll make this my last post to you on this topic in this thread.
You can't make a claim about what someone is arguing, and then say you don't care what he thinks. Tim O'Neill did NOT deny that there were religious objections to Galileo, only that there were scientific ones as well. You have strawmanned him, and based your responses on that strawman.
I think I am justified in not wanting a debate with someone who does not behave properly. Not just because he simply insults, but because he does not follow the rules of logic. An example:
MY QUESTION: Now the more general question: do you agree that the Christian churches, in this case, haveplayed a regressive role against science during the centuries of their political dominance in Europe? I am interested in that and not in your task of demystification of what you want.
ANSWER: No. That idea has been rejected by historians of science for about a century.
Do you deny that the churches actively pursued the New Science because it undermined the principles of*your*its*authority over faith and scientific knowledge?
[Not answered].
MQ: What I don't know is how you have the cheek to deny that the papacy and the Holy Office's action against Galileo is one of the most savage attacks against the independence of science
A: Where did I say this? Quote me. This should be funny to watch..
What is he saying? Yes or no? Can it be said that the church did not attack the independence of science and then attacked it? If you are willing to present O'Neill's ideas and explain them - as seems to be the case - I will gladly discuss them.
"The terms of Bruno's conviction are not known with certainty." But YOU are the one to claim that Bruno was persecuted for promoting heliocentrism. There is no evidence for that. Bruno's idea of infinite worlds does not support heliocentrism. Roman-era philosophers like Plutarch proposed something similar, without the need to invoke heliocentrism.
Just because we don't know something firsthand doesn't mean we don't have other references. Based on the same sources O'Neill cited here and I have consulted, we know that Bruno was condemned for asserting the existence of innumerable worlds and believed firmly in the Copernican system. These are points that no one disputes. Some conclusions can be drawn from this.
If Bruno believed in heliocentrism, and he wasn't charged with heresy for this (and that seems to be the case), then it adds support to the idea that Copernicus's theory wasn't overly controversial until Galileo.
Don't try to draw "logical" conclusions on insufficient data. Astrology was condemned by the fathers of the Church (Augustine), some occasional councils (Toledo) and papal bulls and yet many of the kings, nobles, cardinals and popes came to it. The existence of a rule does not mean that it was always fulfilled to the letter. We know that Bruno was condemned for something others had said before (the theory of the infinitude of the universe), but not why or how. One possible cause is that Bruno, as with Galileo, claimed that what he believed was true and not pure hypothesis. It is a relevant fact, because it was this that unleashed in many cases the repressive fury of the religious tribunals and the Holy Inquisition in particular. This is the reason given by Prof. Alberto A. Martinez of the University of Texas. It seems very plausible to me.
Yes, the problem of parallax. And yet you claimed just earlier 'It is not true that the opposition to Galileo was "scientific"'.
But there were more non-theological reasons than just parallax, including:
(1) Stars would have to be incredibly huge
(2) The model of a rotating earth was disputed due to the lack of then-observable eastward deflections in falling bodies (though this objection came a few years after Galileo)
(3) Galileo proposed that the tides were physical proof that the earth rotated. His contemporary Johannes Kepler believed that it was the moon that caused the tides. Galileo's theory was shown to be wrong because there were two tides a day rather than one (which was implied if a rotating earth was the cause of the tides.)
I said that the opposition to Galileo was scientifically weaker than yourshim and was not exercised by independent scientists.
Indeed. The stars were infinitely farther away --as some like Bruno had supposed. It was not impossible.
The error with tides was solved with another heliocentric theory, not with Aristotle's concepts of natural place.
The objection of free fall within a moving subsystem was solved by Galileo with a simple observation that Mersenne and Gassendi carried out in the form of a a controled experiment shortly after: dropping an object from the mast of a ship and other moving objects.It was very simple, wasn't it? Well, that's what the Church's scientists didn't know how to do: To devise a controlled experiment.
The disadvantages of the Aristotelian-Ptolemaic theory were worse than its objections to Galileo: they had no solution without a change of paradigm. It was becoming unmanageable. And their difficulties were not subject to experiments -as Galileo-, but to Aristotelian and Thomistic dogmas. In other words, they did not defend a science free of religious dogma.
Then you have conceded the point as far as I can see. I have been arguing against the idea that more scientific knowledge results in more religious conflicts. My argument isn't wrong because you want to argue something else!
I'm not arguing anything different. I'm explaining why your argument doesn't work. You have artificially isolated two factors of opposition: more-less and conflict-not conflict. That's not how thing work in history.
This requires a little more explanation. I go by parts:
As I said in a previous post in the subject we are dealing with two different things are mixed: whether there is conflict between religion and science as systems of thought and what manifestations of conflict there has been in history.
I think the answer is "yes" in both cases, but I am going to refer to the second.
The historical development of the science-religion conflict does not follow a linear development. This happens in any historical problem. This development is due to circumstances of the social and cultural environment. In the case of the conflict between Christianity and free science, in the Renaissance the science without ecclesiastical tutelage had all the advantages because it was necessary for the development of emerging commercial and industrial classes. That is what made the science-religion conflict sharpen in countries where the rentier aristocracy held power (Spain and Italy) and religion took steps backwards where it developed flourishing trade and manufacturing (England, Holland and, to a lesser extent, France). This explains why the conflict did not have a uniform result throughout Europe. That is why in countries where science could not flourish, religion maintained the conflict in repressive forms (Inquisition, index of forbidden books, autocratic regimes) well into the 19th century.
I hope that this brief historical analysis will allow you to understand why your example was badly posed.
The conclusion is that with all this the Church has learned to keep its mouth shut when scientists say things that affect the religious beliefs, because if churches speak too much they endanger the foundations of their religion. This is the much praised "tolerance" of the Church today.
To said it in another way: this is why there is not a strong conflict between religion and science nowadays. Because the force of religion has become weaker.