To argue that the fastest woman could run as fast as the fastest man is an extraordinary claim which flies in the face of all the available evidence, but is that actually what's being claimed, or is it a bit more subtle than that?
The author of the post seems to be saying that an innate, on average, sporting performance difference between men and women is not a settled issue.
Which is ludicrous, and to be fair a fair few commentators (including someone on HRT, interestingly) didn't agree.
The idea of long tails in populations is an interesting one though. If part of the sporting ability (let's say strength) is determined by hormonal load then it may be the case that the human body has an innate maximum strength which can be reached through increased testosterone (for example).
Male bodies will be nearer this maximum strength on average, so increased positive variation in testosterone may not affect strength too much. But women have a lot more room to improve, so increased variation in testosterone may keep increasing strength for longer than it would in men.
Just idle speculation.
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