https://www.cnbc.com/2017/12/20/uks...t-is-time-to-get-out-of-stocks-and-bonds.html
Jim Mellon of the Burnbrae Group says U.S. equities are close to a top, there are ominous signs for the bond market, and profits at large tech companies will likely sag in the face of new regulation.
"We are pretty close to a top. I have been in this market for 30, 40 years and I would say it is extremely fully-valued by most measures," he told CNBC Wednesday.
For fixed income, Mellon said global debt was in a bubble-like territory. The investor said he expected bond values to fall further having now broken through key resistance levels.
"The dividend yield on the S&P 500 is below the 2-year Treasury note for the first time and that's an ominous sign," Mellon added.
The shocking truth about stock returnsSo no bubble. Outflows from bond funds and overseas funds into the market
for the next eight years. In other words, just a rebalancing that no one will
find interesting.
But we are in a bubble for sure, and sooner or later it will burst. It's called the Business Cycle, and like the tides nobody knows what causes it.What is the S&P 500’s inflation-adjusted return this century?
If you’re like most investors, your guess will be way too high. Believe it or not, the S&P 500 after inflation has produced just a 0.9% annualized price-only return since its March 24, 2000, top.
How can this be, you might ask, given that we’re experiencing the second strongest and second-longest bull market in U.S. history? The culprits, needless to say, are the two severe bear markets that occurred along the way. The S&P 500 dropped by 49.1% during the 2000-2002 bear market, for example, and an additional 56.8% in the 2007-09 downturn. It takes a lot more than a powerful bull market to overcome them.
It's now 8 years since 2009...The average length of an expansion has increased significantly since the 1990s. The three business cycles from July 1990 to June 2009 had an average expansion phase of 95 months – or almost 8 years – compared with the average recession length of 11 months over this period.
But we are in a bubble for sure, and sooner or later it will burst. It's called the Business Cycle, and like the tidesnobodyYOU dont knowswhat causes it.
It's now 8 years since 2009...
Riight.Many of us are well aware that it is central banks and their nonstop issuance of fiat money that cause asset bubbles and crashes.
The first systematic exposition of periodic economic crises, in opposition to the existing theory of economic equilibrium, was the 1819 Nouveaux Principes d'économie politique by Jean Charles Léonard de Sismondi...
Sismondi and his contemporary Robert Owen, who expressed similar but less systematic thoughts in 1817 Report to the Committee of the Association for the Relief of the Manufacturing Poor, both identified the cause of economic cycles as overproduction and underconsumption, caused in particular by wealth inequality. They advocated government intervention and socialism, respectively, as the solution.
Although central banks today are generally associated with fiat money, the 19th and early 20th centuries central banks in most of Europe and Japan developed under the international gold standard, elsewhere free banking or currency boards were more usual at this time. Problems with collapses of banks during downturns, however, led to wider support for central banks in those nations which did not as yet possess them
Tulip mania (Dutch: tulpenmanie) was a period in the Dutch Golden Age during which contract prices for some bulbs of the recently introduced and fashionable tulip reached extraordinarily high levels and then dramatically collapsed in February 1637. It is generally considered the first recorded speculative bubble...
The modern discussion of tulip mania began with the book Extraordinary Popular Delusions and the Madness of Crowds... by the Scottish journalist Charles Mackay; he proposed that crowds of people often behave irrationally, and tulip mania was, along with the South Sea Bubble and the Mississippi Company scheme, one of his primary examples...
in the early 17th century caught the attention of the entire nation; "the population, even to its lowest dregs, embarked in the tulip trade".[10] By 1635, a sale of 40 bulbs for 100,000 florins (also known as Dutch guilders) was recorded.
The Dutch guilder (Dutch: gulden, IPA: [ˈɣɵldə]) or fl. was the currency of the Netherlands from the 17th century...the name indicates the coin was originally made of gold.
The truth is, central banks and their 'nonstop issuance of' fiat money are not the cause of asset bubbles, speculators are - even when the money supply is constrained by a gold standard.
I like how Tippit thinks he shut you down without offering any actual facts or evidence, Roger.
More "theory" but no evidence. Nicely done!
I'll give you a hint: you're an empiricist. Empiricism is great, as long as we can use the scientific method t....
Then many of you are completely wrong. You are pumping out ridiculous ultra libertarian nonsense. The former bubbles recently cited here: the 1637 tulip mania, the 1720 South Sea Bubble, the 1845 railway mania and the 1929 stock boom happened at times when precious metal was the basis of value of the currencies then circulating. See also https://www.thoughtco.com/financial-panics-of-the-19th-century-1774020Many of us are well aware that it is central banks and their nonstop issuance of fiat money that cause asset bubbles and crashes.
Not long ago you were telling us that bubbles and depressions could occur only on account of fiat money. Nowyoure telling us they can occur any time, and always will, but they're the Feds fault for not expanding the Money supply. That is plain stupid. How do you increase the supply of gold coin? In 1933 the USA came off gold and increased the money supply. They should have done it more, but how could that happen unless the Fed controlled it? You're contradicting yourself.You are clownishly ignorant. It's obvious that the supply of money is a factor in the price of everything, and the Fed controls the supply of money. The Fed even admits it caused the Great Depression, by - get this - not increasing the money supply even more after the roaring twenties:
And then there is what incoming Chairman Powell said:
Oh, and then he said:
"I think we are actually at a point of encouraging risk-taking, and that should give us pause. Investors really do understand now that we will be there to prevent serious losses. It is not that it is easy for them to make money but that they have every incentive to take more risk, and they are doing so. Meanwhile, we look like we are blowing a fixed-income duration bubble right across the credit spectrum that will result in big losses when rates come up down the road. You can almost say that that is our strategy."
So yes, booms, busts, bubbles, and the business cycle existed before central banks and will always exist, but central banks and fiat money vastly increase the magnitude of them because of their monopoly on money creation and destruction. Take it from their own mouths, or keep your head in the sand, ostrich.
Not long ago you were telling us that bubbles and depressions could occur only on account of fiat money. Nowyoure telling us they can occur any time, and always will, but they're the Feds fault for not expanding the Money supply. That is plain stupid. How do you increase the supply of gold coin? In 1933 the USA came off gold and increased the money supply. They should have done it more, but how could that happen unless the Fed controlled it? You're contradicting yourself.
That ubbles can happen under gold is plain. The meaning of the Dutch word "guilder", current in 1637, has already been explained to you. In Britain the gold standard was adopted in 1717, and the South Sea Bubble happened in 1720. The stock boom was in 1929 and the gold standard prevailed until 1933 in the USA.
Maybe your knowledge is "a priori", but your expression of the facts may be described as "de posteriori", if you follow my meaning.It's simple reasoning based on a priori knowledge.
It has almost nothing to do with central banks in the context of speculative bubbles. Not at all.Bubbles are defined by abnormally high prices, which are not only functions of the supply and demand of the assets in the bubble, but of the supply and demand of money itself. If we can't identify a trough in some other asset class which corresponds to a peak in another asset class which we deem to be in a "bubble", then it means the money supply has increased, which has absolutely zero to do with "speculators", and everything to do with central banks.
Currently, I'm laughing, but I fear I'll be crying with you later and so goes the cycle...I've just allowed the broker to invest a quite large sum that was previously in cash, so we are almost certainly heading for a crash.
No, you stated thatNope, I claimed that the Fed is the primary cause of bubbles and depressions.
No qualification there about "primary causes". And also you asserted that the fedMany of us are well aware that it is central banks and their nonstop issuance of fiat money that cause asset bubbles and crashes.
So there never was any gold standard, and the Fed created the boom of 1929 and then intentionally engineered the ensuing slump for the purpose of creating an excuse to end the gold standard scam so that the President could steal the general public's gold stocks. I see. Nothing is what it seems in your deranged world, is it? It's quite impossible to argue with conspiracy theorists. After all, President Kennedy was never murdered. He merely blew his own brains out to frame Oswald, so that Oswald would be arrested; in order to give Jack Ruby the opportunity to bump him off.caused the Roaring Twenties with an artificially fueled and unfair credit boom, and then contracted the money supply as much as 33% according to Milton Friedman thus causing the Great Depression.