What are you trying to hard to rewrite the OP of this thread?
Can you spot the difference?:
'Are Communists necessarily anti-semitic'
vs.
'Is Communism inherently anti-semitic'
Can you actually spot the Skeptic quote in the OP, and how it actually matches Taarkin's question without needing any rewrite?
For both the OP and your attempt to rewrite it, Communist and Socialist leaders of the past and present, from philosophers to political leaders, overwhelmingly viewed religion in the negative to its effect on society and its development, from Marx to Lenin. Some went so far as to violently purge/destroy/rethink/rewrite/etc. religion out of the society which they ruled, ie
Jewish Autonomous Oblast.
There is a difference between being against religion and being anti-semitic, you know? So the above so far is a completely irrelevant canard for the actual claim in the OP.
Also, speaking of rewriting the op, I don't see that claim having been made just about cherry-picked leaders. So, you know, before hinting that others rewriting the OP or of cherry-picking, it would be nice to practice what you preach.
Its not quite a stretch that this anti-religious stance or actions against religion overall can be translated to being anti-semitic against one specific religion. Judaism being the case here...
And again, anti-semitism is defined as hating the
Jews, not as just not liking
Judaism. And when you try to phrase it as something as general as, "being anti-semitic against one specific religion" it's as big a nonsense as being racist against one specific submarine.
Besides, the question is what can be supported, not what BS isn't a stretch to believe without evidence. "Isn't a stretch" is a non-argument. It's also not a stretch to believe that you're beating your wife, but "isn't a stretch" doesn't actually make it so.
Doubly so, since even for the documented cases of actual communist antisemites, the arguments against Jews and the arguments against religion generally were actually quite separate and distinct. Religion was only "bad" as being "opium of the people" and preventing them from reaching the "class consciousness" levels that Marx wanted, while Jews got the brunt of Stalin's paranoia just because he suspected them of being more loyal to their own Jewish nation and Israel more than to the USSR, and in Marx's case for basically his own dumb idea that Jews are all mercantile. It's fundamentally different arguments. So, yeah, you can use weasel wording and hypotheticals to try to link the two, but that doesn't override the fact that reality is that-a-way and the hypotheticals don't match it.
Or by what definition of anti-semtism are we working with here?
The dictionary one would be a good start. Or at least one that doesn't involve redefining words, really.