Then what to do about it? It surely shouldn't be left the way it is now, since it goes against what they were instructed to do, or not to do in this case. How much of the sum they arrived is the "to make it painful" part? 30%? 50%?
Then, as it should be damages only, some people noticed something else, as can be read here. I think there are some valid points in that line of reasoning. If certain devices were exclusive to certain carriers, who didn't offer an iPhone at that time or before anyways, how could Apple be damaged by something they had no part in anyways?
Of course it would be interesting to know how many people buy smartphones of either brand without a contract for a carrier, i.e. pay the full price and use it in whatever network they are.
Here's the actual jury instruction:
The amount of those damages must be adequate to compensate the patent holder for the infringement. A damages award should put the patent holder in approximately the financial position it would have been in had the infringement not occurred, but in no event may the damages award be less than a reasonable royalty. You should keep in mind that the damages you award are meant to compensate the patent holder and not to punish an infringer
To my layman eyes, the "no punishment" clause is not a requirement so that alone wouldn't be enough to invalidate the damages. It's certainly not, "less than a reasonable royalty." It seems the only way to invalidate the damages is to demonstrate there's no way Apple could possibly be a $1 billion richer if Samsung hadn't infringed.
$1 billion in the bank is a bit shy of 4 million iPhones sold. Apple has sold 175 million iPhones to date. Is it really impossible to imagine that the entirety of Samsung's infringing product line could hurt Apple's sales by 2%? So impossible that it would invalidate damages?