W.D.Clinger
Philosopher
Probably not, because that's a consequence of selection bias. I filtered (cherry-picked) the state constitutions by quoting only those that (1) mentioned defense of self as well as the state (or mentioned the right of free white men to defend themselves, presumably against enslaved non-whites), (2) had been adopted by 1850, and (3) for which there is at least some case law interpreting the right as an individual right.Is it significant that the state constitutions almost all specify "self-defense" and the U.S. Second Amendment does not?
By the way, cherry-picking is legitimate when producing a counter-example to a general or overly broad claim. It takes only one counter-example to falsify a general claim such as ben m's.
I ran out of time to respond to this in my previous message:
I applaud your (implied) desire to exempt the voters of Idaho from restrictive federal laws and regulations that may be more popular in other states than in Idaho.Right! That's the sort of thing that can happen, of course, in a country where gun ownership is regulated by legislature and not by the Constitution. If the voters of Idaho are happy with loose gun laws, that's what they'll get. The voters of Washington DC wanted stricter gun laws---it was not some federal imposition---but Heller overruled them. Weird, huh?
Federal gun control legislation contributed to the rural backlash that contributed to the political environment that contributed to Heller.
We aren't discussing math or physics here. We're discussing law and its interpretation by courts, which is a far murkier subject. Those who say the history and interpretation of the right to keep and bear arms is simple or straightforward are fooling themselves or trying to fool others.