I queried this not so long ago, and its true what you say the structures above the impact areas, were not tall enough to significantly activate an inverted pendulum effect. If it was as you say 55 floors up or lower we would surely see a toppling take place.
I do not believe that this is true. Not certain, I just don't believe it....
Curse you for that tfk. You caused me to engage "serious thinking mode". And that is not without risk at my age...
First issue is that I think you could be right in casting doubt.
Second issue is that I an also "not certain" - either way; AND
Third issue is that I may have made some "it will topple" claims in the past which could now come home to haunt me. If anyone finds any of my previous posts which could be embarrassing please use one of these




but don't rub my nose in it.
Now getting more serious - here is my "thinking as I type" - warts and all with a couple of dead end paths left here for all to see:
The key factors in "topple or not" if damage started lower down are, I think:
1) There was/were no rigid block/blocks to give an easily defined "point" (or "line") of pivot about which the top bit would topple. However if the topside of lower tower and underside of top portion of tower did allow a "topple" there would be a "virtual pivot line". That line could be no further out than the perimeter columns on the toppling side. And by hopefully trivial logic or engineering gut reaction it would be way back - probably within the core area. The step forward for that thinking becomes "there was no need for the CofM of the Top Bit to be outside the lower tower perimeter". (Several hairy bits there but leave them till I pursue some more basics)
2) In order to create the overturning moment we need an upwards force exerted by the lower tower on the base of the top section. Thinking initially of this as a single "net" force it has to be out of vertical alignment with the Centre of Mass of the falling top bit to create the toppling moment. (The "net" simplification to initially at least avoid (a) the "virtual pivot" definition as stated above and (b)the details of what bits of lower tower reacted with what bits of "upper tower" - the "two halves of a wire basket" problem. So let me use "net" at least for a starter.)
3)
Why the halt of tilting a 8o? Having rewritten "1)" and "2)" I think the 8
o is irrelevant. Or rather it is consequential of something rather than causal. Let's see as I continue this "typing as I think"
4) Now having got this far I can see that I have gone down a dead end street. The two primary issues for "will it topple or fall straight down?" are
A) "where does the overturning moment come from"; AND
B) "what forms the pivot for the toppling?"
...and both of them relate to how the forces are distributed across the "wire baskets" of the interface between top portion and lower tower. So trying to treat it as simplified "net" forces gets me nowhere.
(I'm confident we can ignore "already turned to debris" material in between those two - at least in a first order bit of guestimation. )
At this stage let me keep the focus on the actual form of collapse initiation which occurred with WTC1 and WTC2 - i.e. aircraft impact starting fires which were not fought - but adding the hypothetical aspect of the postulated lower impact. Reason I'm not confident that a "cut out a wedge" initiation by demolition techniques creates the same scenario. Neither would a "grid of columns" traditional structural arrangement. We can return to the broader scope of tfk's "intuitive claim" later if I get anywhere with this bit of brain farting.
5) The tilt of the top part - most extreme in WTC2 - meant that the columns on the low side had failed - observable fact I suggest. The columns of the core were at best failing leaving the "opposite side" perimeter columns in tension. (And the other two sides a mixture which I will relegate by guess to "second order" importance)
(And let me state an obvious one

- If the initial failure did not start the tilting then "straight down" is what would happen without doubt for a WTC Twin Towers "tube-in-tube" structural configuration. So we are not considering that scenario as a possible one for "top bit toppling over the side".)
6) Back to our scenario with "top bit' tilted as per WTC2. Given the tilt the "low side" was already transitioning into ROOSD and the core already transitioning into "core strip down mode".
Fine details aside that means that:
a) the low side resistance available to form part of the net upwards force and one side of the toppling moment is already down to the minimal strength of the floor joist connectors. No significant perimeter column strength is still in play;
b) the core is partly destroyed and reducing to the ultimate weakest situation of beam shear strip down forces So the resistance from the core is reducing. (AND that is a critical point for the next stage comment/assessment - see "####")
c) As the low side perimeter enters ROOSD and the core enters "strip down stage" - both of which must be happening to allow the 8
o - the perimeter columns on the high side are reverting to compression (Or are still in near full strength compression - it matters not if they never went into tension) AND those high side columns are, at that stage, the only significant column strength still available for upward resistance.
SO there is the overturning moment - strong force from high side perimeter, low force from low side perimeter and the "virtual pivot" somewhere between core and high side perimeter. And core contribution to overturning moment not very significant because it is closer to the pivot line of the centroid of the virtual "section modulus".
THEREFORE the top bit will continue to topple unless there is another factor.
#### What is the "Other Factor"
I think the clue lies in this comment by tfk:
...The crucial task is to leave the remaining supports as strong as possible (to support the tilting upper segment) while taking out just enough to cause the collapse...
(Not forgetting that tfk is contemplating an ab initio deliberate CD whilst I am at this stage still staying with a hypothetical WTC with lower impact.)
There are two conflicting factors in that statement - I agree with them BTW. They are - in my words:
A) Leave enough to act as pivot for toppling; WHILST
B) taking out enough to cause downwards movement.
Stated differently: For anything to happen - toppling or straight down - enough weakening has to take place. THEN that weakening has to leave behind enough resistance to induce toppling OR it will go "straight down".
Now we know that for WTC2 tilting started but did not transition to toppling.
What would happen if the initial impact and damage zone was lower?
The mechanism as I have explained it and as demonstrated by WTC2 on 9/11 saw the top portion retain geometry - the same mechanism applied lower down and with a "longer" top portion tilting would take the CofM of the top portion further outside the pivot area. With the pivot still intact on the high side and the resistance on the low side reduced to insignificant ROOSD levels.
So as first conclusion I "guesstimate" that a lower down initiation would lead to toppling.
So there is my first lot of thinking laid out warts and all.
Go for it anyone interested. Engineers first might be best.
I can revert to consideration of tfk's additional points and broader scope if I get out of this one without sever injuries.
