I think that I have already answered this question. See my comment #100
But this would mean, exclusive criticism of Quran would have to be skipped until the day when "white supremacists" (or whatever one wants to call them) no longer exploit fear of Islam for their political goals.
I think "white supremacists" will always exploit such fears as long as such fears exist.
I think fears regarding Islam will exist as long as regularly some kind of atrocities are committed by people claiming to act in the name Of Allah.
So the day when one can offer exclusive criticism of Ouran would be in one option the day when no longer some people regularly commit some kind of atrocities supposedly in the name of Allah, cause only then the "white supremacists" can no longer exploit fears.
Or alternatively the day when world has somehow got rid of "white supremacists".
Presuming the latter never happens, one might find oneself in a perfect catch 22:
If one wants to argue, that the Quran has unlike some other holy books a greater potential to "encourage" some people to commit atrocities in the name of Allah, one has to postpone such argument (or at least the "greater" part) till the day when no longer people commit such atrocities in the name of Allah (or not more than in the name of other gods).
Which would just be the day, when such argument could no longer be true/valid.
It is possible that Christians, Jews, Muslims, Buddhists and others reach the conclusion that their Book is compatible with democracy. They only need forget many pages of it. It is not easy, but faith —in democracy— moves mountains.
In reality, almost all modern believers have experience in erasing what their Holy Book actually said by considering it as “allegoric”.
So you exclude the possibility that someone might sincerely based on reasoning avoiding any bias reach the conclusion that Bible/Torah are somehow compatible with democracy while Quran isn't?
Yes. My point is that if the state has protective laws about terrorism in general it is a discriminative politics to request laws against a particular belief, as if it was the only one that fosters terrorism. This is discriminative and incites violence against this community.
And how would the state allowed to adjust the laws, if hypothetically some particular belief is fostering realy a lor more terrorism than all other beliefs combined and that a plausibel explanation seems to be that this is due to the content of the belief?
To remind, mostly political ideologies are equaly free to be promoted; but history shows that some political ideologies make human rights violations by governments following the respective ideology far more likely; and this is used by some countries as a justification to have special laws regarding such political ideologies.
Hence, when the state finds that some political ideologies are a lot more problematic than others, the state - at least in some countries - is allowed to tailor laws or even only the application of laws and other political measures specifically to weaken that ideology.
An example for this approach is visible even in this thread, in which some posters seem to argue, that "blasphemous" attacks on mosques should be punished especially severe if committed by right-wing extremist/nazis; that is specifically applying harsher punishments to followers of that political ideology probably with the intent to weaken the influence of that ideology with the underlying motivation based in observation that that ideology is a lot more dangerous than other ideologies.
And also, this was not a comparison, but just an example, that with ideologies the extent in which they foster violence and the connection of that with the content of the ideology is to some extent valid reason for the state is justified in treating that ideology different from others.
Which raises from my POV the above question, if and how the state might react to religions differing vastly in respect to fostering violence.