lifegazer said:
How does this constitute a proof of a finite universe?
I'm not trying to prove that the universe is finite, the proof demonstrates that it is incoherent to say that "if the universe is all of existence, it must exist within something else"
I agree that if the universe is all that exists then indeed there cannot be an external realm embracing it. But the consequence of this observation is that the universe cannot be finite.
No, that again doesn't follow. The proof does not depend on whether or not the universe is finite. It still remains incoherent to demand the existence of something beyond the realm of all that exists.
You say that it can on account that nothing within the universe can escape spacetime (being a part of that spacetime itself).
That's not what I'm saying. I'm saying that volume doesn't enter the question of whether space needs some external container.
But this isn't acceptable.
... I would never insist upon stating, for example, that the absolute-proof for only the mind existing is apparent by the fact that we cannot escape from our own awareness. Yet this is true - we cannot escape our awareness. Does this automatically infer that only the mind/awareness exists?
I frankly don't care whether you find it acceptable or not- the question is whether you can show it is logically inconsistent, which you can't. Remember, my proof doesn't show that the universe
is finite, merely that it
can be without requiring any sort of external container. Similarly, you would certainly agree that your mind exists, and it is not logically incoherent for you to posit that it is
all that exists. That's essentially the only logically valid form of Solipsism in a nutshell- there is one reality, and it's mine. Not terribly useful, but logically coherent nonetheless.
Don't be so pedantic. You know it means "real distance" as opposed to conceptual/imagined distance.
No, seriously- you need to either define your terms up front or stop inventing new ones on the fly. If you meant "real distance" vs. "illusory distance", then you once again beg the question what real distance is, since everything that exists is an illusion. Distance in this universe continues to have the same properties, except now you call it illusory rather than real. I guess, then, that optical illusions that give a false impression of distance are illusions of illusory distance? What have we gained from making this distinction?
Herein resides the crux of our dispute, I think.
Infinity is an intangible concept. It cannot be grasped or fulfilled
or come to an end or be contained/embraced.
I think I can settle for embracing and fulfilling a 9 or a 10.
Seriously, though.
Infinity is simply a way of expressing the absence of a limit. An subset of an infinite number of elements can indeed be contained within another set.
In short, it does not relate to the reality of anything... just the potential of those things.
There must still be things, for example, that God (assuming God exists for this argument's sake) has not created or thought of. Otherwise, to continue arguing that God embraces infinity, you would have to argue that God has already finished creating an infinity of things or has finished having an infinity of thoughts. Now, that is plainly silly. There is no end to infinity. So we see that infinity is not contained or embraced - even by God - but just refers to God's potential of being/doing. God's infinite potential remains unfulfilled, for eternity. There is no end to what God can do. Yet there must be an origin to what God can do: and that origin is God itself.
But you already insisted that God is infinite- so what you're talking about is God (all that exists) as a subset (with an infinite number of elements) of some larger infinite set (say, the set of all things that "could be").
There is actually a coherent way of talking about different "sizes" of infinities- it's called Aleph notation, but I digress. Strictly speaking, it is possible for an infinite set to be contained within an infinite set of the same cardinality, without the two sets being equal.
As fascinating as all this is, none of it implies that the universe, finite or not, cannot be the whole of existence.
This universe of time is a changing existence of effects. Change is effected by forces. Force is effected by an enforcer. Forces are effects of an enforcing agent.
I'm afraid that's just a (rather silly) anthropomophisation of the universe. Forces are quite simply interactions. We have no need to posit some external agency that must be present to "make forces work". It is certainly not necessary for there to be only one such agency.
By default of this logic, the enforcer is the essence of force/change = the essence of time, since the enforcer is the cause of forces which have caused time.
Forces do not cause time. Time is a dimension in the universe, whether change is happening or not.
The Enforcer creates time... and must exist beyond time. I.e., the existence of the enforcer must precede the changes/time which It proceeds to instigate.
Must
precede time- I must remember that one.
Logically incoherent.
If I remember correctly, Upchurch pointed out that spacetime cannot exist without matter/energy. Obviously, matter/energy cannot exist without spacetime (where would it have been?), so the only logical conclusion is that if time has a lower boundary, then matter/energy was present at that boundary and it is meaningless to ask what came before.
Work is being done in creating change/time. Hence, a Working agent is invoked as the cause of that work.
Since it has already been shown that mass/energy (therefore work) can come from nothing and be caused by nothing (i.e. vaccuum fluctuations), your statement doesn't follow.
The universe contains its own forces. Therefore, the universe contains its own enforcer.
You have never shown a need for an enforcer.
This enforcer is distinct from the effects which those forces have created. A primal-cause (of effects created by force), is infered, by default.
A great leap forward indeed. Instead of assuming a primal cause and then plugging our ears, we can assume an enforcer, make some nonsensical statments about time, and then deduce a primal cause (and then plug our ears).
I'm a solipsist within the context that only God's mind exists. Everything else (me, you, and my hamster included), are mere perceptions of that mind.
So, we are not separate beings, but separate perceptions of one being.
But once again, you have never given any reason why such a mind must exist. You get so caught up in your pet philosophy that you fail to consider alternative possibilities.
True. But once again, remember that reason forged that tool in the first instance.
So Mathematics is a formalization of reason and it follows the rules of reason. Fine. Does this in any way mitigate or make invalid my use of mathematics in my arguments?
The problem with mathematics, is that it so often fails to distinguish between intangible and tangible. As such, all conceptual mathematics is assumed to relate to tangible existence.
No, mathematics is completely abstract. It is distilled reasoning. There are no assumptions about tangibility. Can you even define tangibility in a mathematical context?
Some things cannot exist within perceived reality (what we assume to be the external world). They can only exist within our minds. One-dimensional strings, for example. Or two-dimensional planes. Hence the folly of string theories.
I'd rather not digress into your egregious misunderstanding of string theory and the physical interpretation of its mathematical underpinning.
Math must learn to distinguish between what can exist within the world and what must exist within our mind. Until it does, it will yield alsorts of dunce philosophies relating to "reality".
That's right. Let's start another campaign with mathematicians like we did for the world of physics. Don't forget to remind the latter about the error of their ways regarding string theory.
Your arrogance really knows no bounds, does it?
Mathematics indeed does not make the distinction between what is physically possible and what is only conceptually possible. This doesn't matter, however, to my use of maths in my arguments, because I'm using them to prove what is
logically possible and not possible. You like to make categorical statements about this or that not being logically possible, and mathematics is a perfectly valid way of shooting them down.
BTW, to only way to distinguish between what is physically possible and what is only logically possible it through the study of the natural sciences. Since these cannot study what is beyond the universe, that pretty much limits arguments on our current subject to logic alone.
Hey, since you've already decried the folly of physicists
and mathematicians, now and throughout history, why don't you just declare that logic itself is in error? That way, you can satisfy your need to feel superior and hold onto your irrational beliefs, while the rest of us can safely dismiss you as beyond the reach of rational argument (most of us, I'm sure, already have.)