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A Philosophy Professor Discusses Ayn Rand in his Ethics Class

True enough. And I should emphasize (again, because we'll be accused of all sorts of things otherwise) that none of the folks I learned these principles from were or are Objectivists. Most were Pragmatists or Socialists.

Further reading on this subject includes Sagan's essay on Bologna Detection; Dr. Steve Dutch's entire website (look at his discussion of Libertarianism to see proof that he's not an Objectivist [O'ism and LIbertarianism are different, but some of Dutch's criticisms are transferable]), C. S. Lewis, St. Abulard, Eurasmus, and the works of G. K. Chesterton. These are universally applicable principles I'm talking about, not things O'ists came up with.
 
I have an honest inquiry, not related to the social system that would result from Objectivism, but the philosophical system itself.

I have read that Objectivism grounds its morality in happiness, that is, that happiness is a reliable metric or moral compass. I have also read that under this, I have no right to harm another, nor they the right to harm me.

Setting aside how those two could co-exist, I am curious to know how potential harm is handled, that is, the possibility or probability of harm as a conceptual entity, existing only in the future, since Objectivism relies on contact with reality as axiomatic.

To make what I mean more plain, suppose I shoot you (with no self defense element or traditional justification). At what point would Objectivist ethics come into play and for whom?

1) You are hit with the bullet
2) I point the gun and squeeze the trigger, attempting to shoot you
3) Someone hands me the gun, believing I will shoot you
4) Someone sells me a gun, believing I intend to harm someone else (not specifically you)
5) Someone is selling guns, knowing that statistically, some will be used to harm others.

And just for kicks, let's agree that your death by gunshot wound makes me really happy. (Hypothetically, of course.)
 
marplots said:
I have read that Objectivism grounds its morality in happiness, that is, that happiness is a reliable metric or moral compass.
Not precisely. Calibration is always the trick. Jim Taggart's happyness certainly wasn't a reliable moral compass, for example. Happyness is the GOAL of morality, not the STANDARD.

To make what I mean more plain, suppose I shoot you (with no self defense element or traditional justification). At what point would Objectivist ethics come into play and for whom?
Well, you'll have initiated the use of force, and would therefore necessarily be in the wrong. The people selling guns and selling the gun to you aren't necessarily in the wrong--statistics, after all, are meaningless when it comes to evaluating individuals. Everyone on Earth purchases shower rods to hold up shower curtains, for example, while my uncle purchased one to act as a fiber optic rod (basically, when a light was on the clear plastic transmitted it outside an insulated box, and let us know the pump was running). The guy who sold you the gun knowing you were going to shoot me may be guilty; I'd need to know more about the situation before drawing too firm a conclusion, however.

The thing is, guilt isn't viewed as a single particle in O'ism. ALL OF YOU can, concievably, be guilty. You, as the shooter, certainly and (given the parameters of the question) unquestionably are guilty. That in no way would mitigate the guilt of the others.

And just for kicks, let's agree that your death by gunshot wound makes me really happy.
Irrelevant. The minimum standard in O'ism for morality--not the standard for being "good", merely for not being evil--is not initiating force against others. There are no excuses permitted, and no mitigating factors. If you initiate the use of force, you are wrong. Period. That's why I say that happyness isn't the moral compass for Objectivists, merely a result.

The only morality that I know of where happyness is considered the moral compass is hedonism. In hedonism (proper hedonism, not the nhilism that currently bears the name) the greatest happyness for the greatest number dictates morality. In Objectivism, life dictates morality--happyness is merely a natural consequences of acting to preserve and enhance your life. If shooting people who have done you no harm makes you happy, you are opperating on the opposite pre-moral choice: death. (If shooting people who HAVE done you harm makes you happy, you can join the police force or military--shooting people isn't necessarily bad, you just have to find a proper outlet).

(Hypothetically, of course.)
It's okay. I admited I'm not being polite here. :D If this threat is the cost of clarifying a few things in O'ism, I'm okay with that--wouldn't be the first time someone wanted to shoot me, and it won't be the last.
 
At what point would Objectivist ethics come into play and for whom?

1) You are hit with the bullet
2) I point the gun and squeeze the trigger, attempting to shoot you
3) Someone hands me the gun, believing I will shoot you
4) Someone sells me a gun, believing I intend to harm someone else (not specifically you)
5) Someone is selling guns, knowing that statistically, some will be used to harm others.
I'd say you're definitely acting immorally by attempting murder, and if the person who sells/hands you the gun knows this is your intent then they're accessories to the crime. However statistics alone are not enough to make it reasonable for the gun seller to suspect that you are going to commit a crime, because the odds of a gun being used in that manner say nothing about the odds of you, personally, using a gun that way.

And just for kicks, let's agree that your death by gunshot wound makes me really happy.
I vote we use a flamethrower. Seems like that would be much more entertaining.

(Hypothetically, of course.)
Uh, right....hypothetically. *hides flamethrower*

:p
 
Akri said:
because the odds of a gun being used in that manner say nothing about the odds of you, personally, using a gun that way.
Minor quibble: The odds are irrelevant to this conversation. Until you do something wrong you cannot be guilty of wrongdoing. It doesn't matter if I'm LIKELY to use the gun to shoot someone, as long as I don't I can't be held guilty of the action.
 
Minor quibble: The odds are irrelevant to this conversation. Until you do something wrong you cannot be guilty of wrongdoing. It doesn't matter if I'm LIKELY to use the gun to shoot someone, as long as I don't I can't be held guilty of the action.

Some further questions.
Does the harm have to happen? In other words, suppose I take an action I believe will harm someone (with a high, but not 100% probability) at some distant future time. In regular morality, my intent matters and the time element isn't a problem. Is this also the case in Objectivism or does harm have to actually occur?

Secondly, how does Objectivism differ from the morality generated in other philosophies? I ask because what has been described so far seems, well, "Meh" to me, and I'm sure I'm missing the significant difference. If possible, don't swamp me with too much, the cartoon, philo 101 version should do.
 
Minor quibble: The odds are irrelevant to this conversation. Until you do something wrong you cannot be guilty of wrongdoing. It doesn't matter if I'm LIKELY to use the gun to shoot someone, as long as I don't I can't be held guilty of the action.

My point was that the person selling the gun (in the last numbered point) doesn't even have a reason to suspect that you're going to commit a crime, so he certainly doesn't have any culpability if you do commit a crime.

And I like how that's the only part of my post you took issue with :D
 
Some further questions.
Does the harm have to happen? In other words, suppose I take an action I believe will harm someone (with a high, but not 100% probability) at some distant future time. In regular morality, my intent matters and the time element isn't a problem. Is this also the case in Objectivism or does harm have to actually occur?
Harm doesn't actually have to occur, but it does need to be reasonable to conclude from your actions that your intention was to cause harm. Additionally, I don't think Objectivists make a distinction between intending to do something and actually doing it, so for instance attempted murder gets treated the same as murder

Secondly, how does Objectivism differ from the morality generated in other philosophies? I ask because what has been described so far seems, well, "Meh" to me, and I'm sure I'm missing the significant difference. If possible, don't swamp me with too much, the cartoon, philo 101 version should do.
In a lot of practical ways it doesn't. The biggest difference is that Objectivism considers individual rights to be, for lack of a better term, sacred. There are some situations where other philosophies consider it acceptable to set aside a person's rights for a greater good, but Objectivism never allows for this. A good example is the thread in the Current Events forum about the woman who died because nobody would give her CPR. According to some philosophies letting that woman die was wrong, and the nurse who could have helped her is at least partially culpable for her death. However an Objectivist is forced to say that, because nobody there was under obligation to help the woman (and the nurse was under a contractual obligation NOT to give CPR) nobody acted immorally. The right to liberty means the right to not help someone else, even if that help would cost you very little and would save their life. Not all philosophies agree with that.
 
marplots said:
In other words, suppose I take an action I believe will harm someone (with a high, but not 100% probability) at some distant future time. In regular morality, my intent matters and the time element isn't a problem. Is this also the case in Objectivism or does harm have to actually occur?
Your intent IS what matters. The statistics are what is irrelevant. If you feed me a fried pumpkin blossom, assuming it will kill me, you've attempted to poison me--despite the fact that I know they're delicious and non-lethal. (This isn't hypothetical, by the way--this happened to my grandfather.) You will have acted, and that action can therefore be evaluated. If you're purchasing a gun, and that's all I know about your intents, I can't justifiably treat you as a criminal until you do something with the gun (if I'm the seller I can refuse to sell it for whatever reason I want, but as a third party I cannot morally get involved until you take some action that violates the rights of others). The fact that fifty people shot other people is irrelevant to whether you have acted morally in purchasing a firearm or not.

Secondly, how does Objectivism differ from the morality generated in other philosophies? I ask because what has been described so far seems, well, "Meh" to me, and I'm sure I'm missing the significant difference.
99%+ of all philosophies are in agreement. Where O'ism differs the most is in terms of altruism. Doing things for others is considered the definition of morality in many moral codes, ranging from Christianity to Communism. In Objectivism, however, it's considered irrelevant. Contrary to what most say it's not considered bad, unless it's forced; it's merely not a relevant factor in ethics. You can only give out of any surpluss production (if you're rational); it's the productivity that's the subject of ethics, not what you do with the surpluss. You may decide to give it to the poor. You may decide to buy a fancy car. You may decide to light it on fire. Some are more sane than others, but as long as it's your money doing or refraining from any of those, and a huge list of others, simply isn't a relevant factor when discussing morality.

It's also not a deontological theory of morality--meaning that there's no duty in Objectivism. This puts it in diametric opposition to Kant's system. In O'ism "I don't want to" is a perfectly valid reason to refrain from doing anything. You may have some pretty nasty consequences to deal with as a result, including death, but you won't be considered evil. In Kant's theory of ethics there are certain duties (I forget if they're derived from the numenal or phenomenal world; they're from the one that's NOT reality as we see it, at any rate), and failing to do them is considered evil. So is wanting to do them, when you get right down to it, but that'll probably confuse the issue...
 
Thanks. Quod erat demonstrandum: Questions asked and answered without goal shifting, personal animus or ad hominum. It can be done.

I am left temporarily satisfied.
 
marplots said:
I am left temporarily satisfied.
Happy to do it--that's the fun type of conversation: one where both sides learn something (I have, by the way). :) And if you still want to hurt me, I do sword fighting--there's absolutely nothing morally wrong with trying to turn my skull into mush, as long as we're both properly armed and armored. Just look for the talk lanky guy in the grey fighting tunic in the SCA. :D
 
So can someone explain to dumb l'il ol' me, keeping in mind that I just don't know the dang rules (having clearly just come from the hay farm), why it's a good idea to be an advocate for a system that allows the smart and/or rich people to take advantage of the dumb and/or poor people in such a manner?

You only think that poor and/or dumb people being exploited is a bad thing because you're a socialist.

If you understood the objective truth of Objectivism you'd realise that it's objectively true that it's morally okay if poor and/or dumb people get exploited.

Fortunately Objectivism is magic, and by magic any problems this causes will be solved, by magic. For a rigorous, logical and thoroughly supported explanation of this admittedly surprising claim, look over there. In that big pile of books. I can't say exactly where but it's there. Somewhere. Honest.
 
Not 'increasing' property values necessarily; my view is that if I pay $200k for a house, then I and my (poor) actions should be the only ones allowed to reduce that house's value to $50k, rather than the random chance of happening to purchase a house next to a future Ronossus-Weenie.

ETA: Of course, the correct decision in a world where I have no recourse against Ronossus is to not purchase a house, because of its inherently unstable value linked to its immobility, and the fact that I could be on the hook for something that rapidly becomes worth 1/4 what it originally was through no fault of my own.

Except of course that Objectivism allows my neighbor to do me harm in one manner, while not allowing him to do me harm in a less subtle manner.

And you don't see this as a complete fail for Objectivism? I mean, seriously, the people who get screwed by car title loans and payday loans don't suddenly cease to exist just because they're now broke and carless. It's sure easy to sit back in our comfy chairs and type on the Internet about how "they should've been more careful", but it's not possible to be familiar with every scam out there.

Objectivism would create an environment where the best thing to be is a person who's smarter than everyone else, and could come up with ways to take advantage of everyone else quicker than they could come up with solutions. With 300,000,000 people in the USA alone, it would be trivial to keep finding people who hadn't heard about car title or payday loans. When that gets played out, come up with a new one... maybe Amway?

As Myriad put it: This is a recipe for a crapsack society.
So's this one: Milken and lately various hedge-fund crooks had no trouble finding suckers. At least Milken did hard time, Madoff is in a life sentence, and Rajaratnam has been found guilty of insider trading. Corzine appears to have escaped punishment.
 
how it will be implimented (if ever) is not a topic I see any point in addressing at this point. We can discuss that after we're all on the same page.
Well that's a problem, because implementation is where I get off the bus. It's easy to make a philosophy that sounds good and is self-consistent, so long as you can wave a wand and force everyone to implement it. And Objectivism, as I mentioned earlier, is valueless unless it is implemented. One Objectivist is actually strongly encouraged to accomplish nothing among the Philistines.

It IS your fault for not knowing enough about the philosophy to know that they've already been addressed, however.
Not really. If they've been addressed so sufficiently, why are you (plurally speaking) so reticent to provide the answers? We (plurally speaking) seem to have to pry each and every one from you. It's not like you forget the questions each time after they're asked.

What most people are doing is akin to asking a Marxist "What does this "prol" word mean? Anyway, you're a moron and your philosopher can't write worth a darn."
Actually the same questions I posed are applicable to communism, especially the philosophy enforcement, for which the Marxist answer is "we shall wave the People's Glorious Wand and the Truth will be self-evident to them," and the practical answer turned out to be "we'll shoot the ones who misbehave."

There's the rub: satisfactorily TO WHO? The fact that a Communist doesn't find my answers to be satisfactory is irrelevant--we know that going in. But okay, I'll give a good-faith effort.
To me. Who else? You aren't talking to Communists, you're talking to people.

They consider property rights inviolate. Thus far, not a single example has been given of a situation where some legitimate harm was done that doesn't include violation of property rights. The reason the O'ist stance is considered unsatisfactory is that we differ on what is considered legitimate. Some consider the loss of property values to be a legitimate harm, while O'ists take the view that investments are inherently risky.

The Tragedy of the Commons exists only when there IS a commons. In other words, when there's property no one has a legitimate claim to (not necessarily ownership of, but a claim to). The tragedy is that everyone tries to get what they can out of it before everyone else, and the system inevitably colapses. If property rights are held as inviolate there's no risk that others will get theirs before you get yours, so there's no tragedy. In cases where property rights can't be applied, such as air, the principle of assumed risk and justice come into play. If you move next to a power plant, you assume the risk of the outflow (after all, it was there first). If they do what they can, in the limits of their knowledge, to eliminate (not reduce, but make not exist) anything that you don't agree to allow on your property, then we find out later that something got out, they're guilty of not knowing something, not a criminal act. They should pay to clean it up, but not punative damages. But that's just an example--the exact implications is legal theory, an area I've never claimed expertise in.
A tidy answer, but it dodges the question because it only holds if a single party can own the entire commons. For example, you'd have to own the entire river, in the American Northwest, to prevent salmon overfishing. Or the entire ocean, if you want whales. Since the whole premise of commons involves situations where no single entity can claim the whole system, your answer doesn't actually address the question, only handwaves it away. Also, as other have mentioned here, there are always commons for tragedies to take place. The air above your property, for example, polluted by noxious factories upwind, garish Ronossuses (Ronossii?), or Trololo player at high volume next door. If you're not driving your neighbors off in order to buy their land at cut-rate prices, rest assured someone else will be.

Who said it did? We haven't answered this question because it's nonsensical. O'ism is not some top-down organization with bylaws and a secret handshake; it's a set of principles. If you agree with them, you are an Objectivist. If not, you're not. I don't have a secret decoder ring, and I'm the only one that holds me to these principles. That said, we do tend to check up on one another--we're an opinionated bunch. We argue a lot.

The main mechanism is to walk away from the people who egregiously violate the philosophy's principles, and to speak out about those violations. I submit as evidence Diana Hsieh's essays on Nethanial Brandon and the former chair of the Fed.

Depends on the person. There are issues that are forbidden, and thus made illegal. Theft, for example, or the initiation of force. Then there are issues which are frowned upon, but which cannot be made illegal for various reasons. With those issues, it is OUR responsibility as private citizens to enfource the norms. This is typically done via economics. Most Objectivists have boycotted Chik-Fil-A for a long time, for example. Sure, it's not much, but we can refuse to allow our work to support their evil. And O'ism does not mean that you'll always win; rights are inviolate, which means that as long as they don't violate anyone else's rights you're just going to have to put up with some idiots.
I'm merging these two answers because they're essentially the same thing, and rest on the notions that boycotting has ever worked and that people who are very profitably lying, cheating or stealing will be at all affected by public shaming. I don't agree with either sentiment, and offer as evidence the fact that virtually every American business regulation got on the books because of one or more egregious violators who could not have been halted any other way. I'm sorry, but it's ridiculously naive to think that we can all just waggle our fingers at the douchebags du jour and expect them to grin sheepishly and say "sorry guys, here's all your money back in old-fashioned $ bags."

If you think addressing the Tragedy of the Commons is simple, I'm sorry, but you don't understand what you're talking about. NO ONE thinks that the answer should be simple. We've been debating this topic for DECADES. Go to any university-level environmental studies class and say that the Tragedy of the Commons is a simple question. You'll get laughed at--and most of them will be Socialists or full-on Communists. It is completely irrational to demand that any philosophy that does not specifically state it has a simple answer for such a complex problem to provide one--after all, no one expects any other philosophy to do so!

This is an exmaple of people holding O'ism to different standards than other philosophies. Whole books and lectures and political paradigms have been constructed to answer some of these questions, but I'm supposed to answer them in a brief post because I'm an Objectivist. I'm sorry, but that's simply not going to happen. Complex problems have complex solutions.
Well, I thought you thought you were offering a simple answer just above, weren't you? In any case, I'm happy enough with society's current simple answer, "a byzantine and often contradictory patchwork of legal decisions, exceptions, and social norms, enforced by a court system backed with a monopoly of force." Then again, I'm not trying to offer the One True Philosophy, No Exceptions everyone should live by.

Try criticizing Marxism with the level of knowledge most people here have about O'ism sometime. It's hardly irrational to say "Learn more than the name, then get back to me".
I'd be happy to debate Marxism with my current level of knowledge about it (i.e. less than even Objectivism, because I don't have to beat the Commies off with a stick like I do the Randroids). Make a thread. You'll even find me using the same arguments as I am here, because I feel both suffer the same problems re: wand-waving upon implementation.
 
Jeez, this thread has become tedious. Can we please get back to discussing what an insufferable, joyless twat Rand was? That discussion would be much more fun. ;)
 
Well that's a problem, because implementation is where I get off the bus. It's easy to make a philosophy that sounds good and is self-consistent, so long as you can wave a wand and force everyone to implement it. And Objectivism, as I mentioned earlier, is valueless unless it is implemented. One Objectivist is actually strongly encouraged to accomplish nothing among the Philistines.
I don't think Dinwar meant that implementation of Objectivism can't be discussed; only that he sees no point in trying to do so here at this time. And I think he has a point--there seems to be quite a bit of hostility toward Objectivims on this forum that isn't seen in other topics (I'm not just basing that off this thread, either). For instance, I know Dinwar has made the "you don't know enough about this topic to have an opinion" argument before, without anyone being bothered by it (except when they thought they were knowledgeable enough--but the issue of needing to be knowledgeable to participate in the conversation was not disputed). Add to that the way some people are willing to blatantly lie about Objectivism and Objectivists (for example, saying we [using "we" because I was lumped in with this] refuse to talk to anyone who doesn't fully agree with Objectivism despite evidence to the contrary in this very thread) and I think it's perfectly justifiable for any Objectivist to say "We can discuss implementation after we're all on the same page [regarding what the philosophy actually says]."

Not really. If they've been addressed so sufficiently, why are you (plurally speaking) so reticent to provide the answers? We (plurally speaking) seem to have to pry each and every one from you. It's not like you forget the questions each time after they're asked.
We've offered a lot of answers in this thread. I'll admit to having avoided some questions because I simply don't know enough about Objectivism to answer, and a few have been avoided because the person asking them made it clear they weren't trying to have an honest discussion, but overall quite a few answers have been given.

A tidy answer, but it dodges the question because it only holds if a single party can own the entire commons. For example, you'd have to own the entire river, in the American Northwest, to prevent salmon overfishing. Or the entire ocean, if you want whales. Since the whole premise of commons involves situations where no single entity can claim the whole system, your answer doesn't actually address the question, only handwaves it away.
Actually it does fully answer the question (as far as the above examples are concerned): in Objectivism you control what happens on your property and nobody else's, so if everyone else overfishes the fish will die. That said, if the owners of the water are all Objectivists that shouldn't occur, because destroying one's source of revenue is generally not in one's self-interest. This isn't me saying "Objectivism works provided everyone follows it", but rather giving two ways a TotC scenario could play out with Objectivist-based laws (either the fishermen aren't Objectivists and they kill all the fish, or they are and they don't).

The air above your property, for example, polluted by noxious factories upwind
If you own the airspace above your property (which I think would be likely in an Objectivist society) then this may be considered a violation of your property rights, and the factory would be required to do everything reasonably possible to prevent it from happening. This is especially true if you're using "noxious" literally.

garish Ronossuses (Ronossii?), or Trololo player at high volume next door.
Neither of these violate Objectivist morals, and so the answer is basically "crap happens".

If you're not driving your neighbors off in order to buy their land at cut-rate prices, rest assured someone else will be.
And how long will that person keep up the attempt before deciding to give up if it doesn't work? You're assuming that people will definitely leave if their neighbors are obnoxious enough, but that's not necessarily the case. I imagine at least some people would fight fire with fire, and try to out-annoy the annoyer.

Yeah, somebody running an operation like that to get cheap houses probably will succeed every once in awhile. But A) how many times can that stunt be pulled before people wise up to it and refuse to offer their houses for a low enough price to make it worthwhile, and B) it's already possible to legally scam people, just not in that particular way.

I'm merging these two answers because they're essentially the same thing, and rest on the notions that boycotting has ever worked and that people who are very profitably lying, cheating or stealing will be at all affected by public shaming.
It has nothing to do with public shaming, and everything to do with losing money (something rich people tend to care about). That aside, it doesn't matter that boycotting might fail (I say "might" because boycotts HAVE proven successful about raising awareness and swaying public opinion on issues. Most of those were political in nature, but if it can work in politics it could potentially work against a business). The reason it doesn't matter is that Objectivism is not claimed to be a philosophy which creates a perfect society where every problem has a nice and tidy solution. Crap will still happen. Bad people will still get away with doing some bad things.
 
Well that's a problem, because implementation is where I get off the bus. It's
If you understand what Objectivists actually believe, that's a legitimate statement. However, I believe this thread has demonstrated that most people here have no clue about that. So while I've no doubt what you're saying is true, I don't see implementation as being worthwhile--we're not to the point where we can have a meaningful discussion of that point. How can we? Every time I turn around someone demands that I support a position that flies in the face of everything I hold as true!

If they've been addressed so sufficiently, why are you (plurally speaking) so reticent to provide the answers?
I'm not. I've answered you.

To me. Who else? You aren't talking to Communists, you're talking to people.
You are missing my point. My point is, Objectivists and non-Objectivists are quite obviously going to be satisified by different answeres.

But okay, let's go with your answer. By what standard are you judging these answers? rimerol demonstrated that I can't expect my oposition to even pretend to stick with logic and rationality as the standards. I'm not suggesting that you are like him; I'm merely pointing out that given my past experience on this forum my question is legitimate.

A tidy answer, but it dodges the question because it only holds if a single party can own the entire commons.
Please explain to me where in my answer I said only one party can own the commons. Objectivism handles corporations and partnerships perfectly fine.

There's a town near where I grew up that has a telephone company. Everyone in town is a member--by choice (you CAN opt out, but there are advantages to being a member that outweigh the advantages of not being one, such as service response times). There is nothing remotely wrong with that situation, despite the fact that, strictly speaking, no single person owns the telephone company. So it's quite obvious that I do not consider sole propriatorship to be the only legitimate business model.

For example, you'd have to own the entire river, in the American Northwest, to prevent salmon overfishing. Or the entire ocean, if you want whales.
Not really. Fish tend to spawn in particular areas. And even if you don't, you can work within property rights to prevent overfishing. You can make deals with various groups, set up nature preserves, that sort of thing. Or it may be that we treat fish like we treat water: certain people have the rights to a certain amount, but no more. There's nothing inherently wrong with such a concept, and it has the practical benefits of addressing how to handle an inherently mobile entity within a property scheme that assumes static property. There's also the option of farming fish--once you're no longer doing industrial harvesting, overfishing becomes a non-issue (and it would have other benefits, such as the halting of reduced catch size).

This is an issue of legal theory, not philosophy. It's telling, however, that you are unable to consider solutions that respect property rights.

Since the whole premise of commons involves situations where no single entity can claim the whole system,
I've studied environmentalism and worked in the field for five years and I've yet to encounter any situation called "the commons" that doesn't amount to land owned by one or more government entities. You are merely assuming that "commons" means "no one can own it". Given my experience dealing with the practical applications of these systems, I reject that premise. This is not, I want to emphasize, based on my views as an Objectivist, but rather based on how environmental remediation is actualy done in the real world. Once we reject the premise that we can assume anything named "the commons" is inherently unownable, solutions present themselves. Also note that I'm not saying there's nothing that can't be wholly owned--I'm merely saying that you cannot ASSUME that that is the case, not without evidence. And unless you're familiar with NEPA, OPLMA, the Clean Air Act, the Clean Water Act, EPA environmental protocols, and the rest (and that's just at the federal level), I'm going to go ahead and suggest that you do some research about how this is currently handled before you tell me I'm wrong.

I'm merging these two answers because they're essentially the same thing, and rest on the notions that boycotting has ever worked and that people who are very profitably lying, cheating or stealing will be at all affected by public shaming.
This isn't even remotely true. First, you're comitting precisely the same error rimerol did: you're equivocating. First you ask how O'ism answers the question, and now you're talking about our current society. Unless our current society is based on Objectivist principles, I DO NOT CARE what current society does. Again, I'm not going to discuss implementation until I'm convinced we're at least in agreement about what Objectivism actually is.

As for the notion that boycots don't work, you're right. They don't often work (if you think they NEVER work, you're simply wrong; I've seen them work, though admitedly not for multinational billion-dollar corporations). That's fine. No one--particularly not me--said that being an Objectivist means that you'll always win. I'm boycotting Chik-Fil-A, as are a lot of other people, and their profits went UP last quarter. I'm not going to stop boycotting them; I just have to act like an adult and accept that other people disagree with me.

As for frauds and thieives, in an Objectivist society they would be prosecuted. So no, I don't expect public shaming to be the solution.

Well, I thought you thought you were offering a simple answer just above, weren't you?
Not really. I was offering a very brief overview of how it would be handled.
 
ETA: Of course, the correct decision in a world where I have no recourse against Ronossus is to not purchase a house, because of its inherently unstable value linked to its immobility, and the fact that I could be on the hook for something that rapidly becomes worth 1/4 what it originally was through no fault of my own.

You already live in a world where your neighbor (unless bound by a neighborhood pact) can do something that reduces your property values, and as long as they don't violate zoning regulations and building codes, there's not a thing you can do about it. May I conclude that you think it is foolish to own a home? Bearing in mind that there's nothing in Objectivism that says you can't have zoning, building codes, or neighborhood associations.
 
The air above your property, for example, polluted by noxious factories upwind
As Akri said, unless you have a specific agreement in place allowing these fumes to enter your property, you could press charges for violating your property rights. Same, by the way, with groundwater and rivers (if you have water rights provisions will be in place for the quality of the water, and degredation of the water, other than natural flucuations, will be considered a violation of your rights). This is how the Colorado River is addressed now, and while the regulations are onerous they aren't actually immoral, and provide a good starting point (yes, I'm familiar with the issues involved--I've actually done work addressing Colorado River water rights, so I'm VERY familiar with these issues that will need to be addressed; I said starting point, not template).

garish Ronossuses (Ronossii?), or Trololo player at high volume next door.
My parents have a neighbor that wakes up every Saturday morning at 7 am and plays drums for an hour. I agree with their response: get a cup of coffee, eat a doughnut, then have a chat with him after he's done. Growing up we called it "acting like a [explative] adult".

If he's really obnoxious you can try mediation.

If you're not driving your neighbors off in order to buy their land at cut-rate prices, rest assured someone else will be.
Except that as soon as this becomes popular it will fail. This notion is self-limiting, for reasons obvious to anyone familiar with business: as soon as people see the trend real estate investors will start looking for this sort of thing, and the competition for it will heat up, and the prices will rise during the bidding wars, making the tactic ineffectual. Besides, no one is forcing you to sell. If you choose to sell, YOU MADE THE CHOICE. What you're talking about is nothing more than people wanting to be saved from the consequences of their own actions.

What all of this tells me is that you view people as basically evil. I've done a lot of traveling, and cannot agrew with you. Most people are fundamentally good--honest, hard-working, trying to do what they can for their families. It really hasn't mattered what country or region I've been in, that's been the trend. Many of the problems you've raised are addressed by litigation in our society because we as a society have taken to suing over everything. Before that happened people actually sat down and talked about things, and worked out their own problems. Sometimes one group or the other walked away unsatisifed, but only a child thinks that you can always win.
 
Your question seems ill-posed, in the sense that it will most likely be precisely these codes and zoning regulations that preclude the building of a 120 ft Ronald McDonald. But more to the point, these codes and zoning regulations would not exist in OblectivistLand. So what are you asking?

I seem to have missed the part of O'ism where zoning and building codes are prohibited. Would you reference it, please? O'ism isn't a subset of anarchism.
 

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