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There is indeed a lot more to be said about randomness. I consider it to be one the most poorly understood words in the English language.
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I don't understand why don't you want to accept random and acausal as the same.
I suspect that you accept free will as acausal, but not as lacking purpose. Could this be the problem?
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We are also getting into the question of Infinite Regression and the Uncaused Cause. If we try to trace the path of causality back to its root we end up with Infinite Regression - there always has to be a higher system. I have defined the Uncaused Cause to be Infinity itself, which presumably is the only logical place to trace the Infinite Regress back to.
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Infinitine regression = infinite chain of causal events; unconceivable, but rational, I think.
Uncaused Cause to be Infinity = irrational?
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I am not sure I understand what you mean by " if you want to negate a correlation of free will with quantum acausal phenomena"....
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Sorry, I think I forced my english. In direct spanish translation, it makes sense, I swear.

I think it will get more clear with this quote:
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Free Will is not quantum randomness. Free Will and randomness are not the same thing...
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IMO, the result of my experiment is that what you are saying here is dogmatic.
With free will you define a source of acausal events.
The QM defines a source of acausal events.
You assert that these 2 sources are not the same, and define the QM events to be just the channel, not the source. Why? If you don't take evidence from somewhere we are in dogma territory.
You MUST find some quality which separates both phenomena, you must find a quality in free will not present in the QM model. But as you reject causality in free will our reason is on the frontiers of what can be argued.
If you bring "purpose" as a difference, this will get bring causality back into free will!
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From my perspective your semantics still seem to render Free Will meaningless by defining everything to be either random or deterministic.
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As I said earlier, you are invited to bring other terminology, or other semantics. I don't think I am forcing meanings, still we are all biased in some direction...
Talking about semantics, it think it is time to speak about what I think it's the root of the problem: the definition of "free will".
Thinking about the meaning and use of "free", it turns I find that "free" is used to talk about the lack of a restriction (or a set of restrictions). It's important to tell that these restrictions are often implicit on the context.
"Free entrance" refer to a payment restriction.
"The wagon is running free" could refer to a failure of brakes, which restricted it's movement in the rail. Still nobody says that the wagon is evading the rail, the physics model, or even causality!
In any use of "free" you will find a finite, understable context, which describes some restrictions, but still has others present.
Whe we create the term "free will", why are we trying to add ALL restrictions in the context? I can't think of any other use of "free" which is taken to that extreme. What evidence is making us think of an unlimited "will"? I can observe some restrictions in my will, and in other will as well.