Robert Prey
Banned
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- Sep 8, 2011
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I see you agree that it has no force in law.
Not at all. It has force in the Common Law.
I see you agree that it has no force in law.
And you are the equivalent of a ad hominemopath. The history of the rights of juries speak for itself. It is for you and other legal eagles to become head in sand ostriches if you so choose.
Not at all. It has force in the Common Law.
No.
Common Law = law created by judges when deciding a case. The Common Law as to jury nullification has been largely settled for decades.
"If the jury feels that the law under which the defendant is accused is unjust... or for any reason which appeals to their logic or passion, the jury hs the power to acquit, and the courts must abide by that decision.". -- U.S. Appellate Cout in U.S.v Moylan, 1969.
What case, statute or part of the Constitution is this quoted from? It is just Jefferson's opinion and at that unclear as to the precise parameters of the power of the jury."I consider trial by jury as the only anchor yet imagined by man by which a government can be held to the Principles of its Constitution."-- Thomas Jefferson
"If the jury feels that the law under which the defendant is accused is unjust... or for any reason which appeals to their logic or passion, the jury hs the power to acquit, and the courts must abide by that decision.". -- U.S. Appellate Cout in U.S.v Moylan, 1969.
(emphasis added)Public and private safety alike would be in peril if the principle be established that juries in criminal cases may, of right, disregard the law as expounded to them by the court, and become a law unto themselves. Under such a system, the principal function of the judge would be to preside and keep order while jurymen, untrained in the law, would determine questions affecting life, liberty, or property according to such legal principles as, in their judgment, were applicable to the particular case being tried. But upon principle, where the matter is not controlled by express constitutional or statutory provisions, it cannot be regarded as the right of counsel to dispute before the jury the law as declared by the court. We must hold firmly to the doctrine that in the courts of the United States it is the duty of juries in criminal cases to take the law from the court, and apply that law to the facts as they find them to be from the evidence.
That they have the power to acquit isn't in dispute here. It is whether they have the right to ignore the law.
.
Correct, but the jury does not have the right to say, well we don't like <racial epitaph deleted> so that <racial epitaph deleted> is guilty even though the evidence clearly shows he was not capable of committing the crime.
Or, as Suddenly has been attempting to drill into your incredibly thick skull, nullification is the one exception, a unique circumstance in which a jury does have a limited right to overrule a law. In every other instance judges have the right to overrule a jury. We generally call this appellate court.
What case, statute or part of the Constitution is this quoted from? It is just Jefferson's opinion and at that unclear as to the precise parameters of the power of the jury.
That they have the power to acquit isn't in dispute here. It is whether they have the right to ignore the law.
Maybe reading the whole case would be a good idea, as it winds up agreeing with me...
(emphasis added)
A juror that ignores the law violates his legal duty. It is just that there is no practical way to stop it.
Any other citations? I know a lot of nullificationists like to cite Morissette even though it has nothing to do with nullification...
Chief Justice John Jay stated the power as a right:
"The first thing we do," said the character in Shakespeare's Henry VI, is "kill all the lawyers."
Now then, in the face of such a law, should the jury be informed of their right to nullify?
??? are you implying that in civil cases there is no appeal process?No. But you might call it a civil as versus a criminal case where there is no such judicial power.
1) That is dicta, and therefore not binding law.
2) Even if it were, it has been overruled by the Sparf case in 1895. That case is quite specific.
No.
Of course, your incredibly juvenile hypothetical suggests the response "by whom?" seeing now that there can't be any judges or lawyers to stem the rule of the mob. Which is what Dick the Butcher was getting at in that famous line, and what nullificationists seem to want.
How about an actual case? A man is subject to life imprisonment for swiping a slice of pizza (under CA 3 strikes law). Does the jury then have the right to nullify or to be told they have the right, or must they follow the judge's instructions (dicta) to only judge the facts?
That is not an actual case, because the value of the pizza slice is not enough for the theft to be a felony, so it would not apply under the 3 strikes rule in CA.
And for the fifty gazillionth time (it seems), Jury Nullification != jury supremecy
1) That is dicta, and therefore not binding law.
2) Even if it were, it has been overruled by the Sparf case in 1895. That case is quite specific.
Sorry to have to correct you. It is a real case.
Swiping pepperoni pizza, gets man 25 years to life
http://news.google.com/newspapers?n...DElWAAAAIBAJ&sjid=I-sDAAAAIBAJ&pg=5055,699286
Well then, if a judge's charge to a jury is to be considered by you to be "dicta," then all charges and instructions by judges to juries must be equally considered "dicta" and therefore such instructions may be ignored by the jury. And that is Nullification. Exactly my point, counselor.
How about an actual case? A man is subject to life imprisonment for swiping a slice of pizza (under CA 3 strikes law). Does the jury then have the right to nullify or to be told they have the right, or must they follow the judge's instructions (dicta) to only judge the facts?