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Trump can serve as POTUS for life

No one is making any such claim.

You, however, have claimed that a governor has the unilateral authority to determine someone's eligibility for President, and that withholding his certification of the state's electoral vote is the way to enforce that determination...
Yes, if the candidate who wins is younger than 38, and it's not a US citizen, the governor is not required to certify the election results.

In fact he is legally obligated not to, if he has any regard for the US Constitution.
 
I would love to see...
Do not reverse the burden of proof.

...for a candidate who clearly do not fulfill the requirements to be president...
The justiciability question has been asked and answered.

Can you provide any citation to any statute in any state that gives the governor the power you attribute to him?
 
As a non-US person, I'm getting confused.

It seems from what I've read here, that something covered by federal law can give whoever does the deciding the authority to prevent someone's name going onto the ballet.

Isn't the Constitution and its amendments part of federal law? In some way?

Which would mean someone's name can be barred if they have served two terms?

Or have I misunderstood?
 
Do not reverse the burden of proof.


The justiciability question has been asked and answered.

Can you provide any citation to any statute in any state that gives the governor the power you attribute to him?
The authority to NOT sign something??

:sdl:
 
Yes, if the candidate who wins is younger than 38, and it's not a US citizen, the governor is not required to certify the election results.
You've provided no citation to any law giving the governor the authority to withhold the state's electoral vote upon the governor's sole determination that the candidate is ineligible.

In fact he is legally obligated not to, if he has any regard for the US Constitution.
"Regard for the constitution" is not a legal cause of action. Can you cite to any statute in any state legally obliging the governor to personally certify the candidate's eligibility for President and to withhold his state's electoral votes upon that determination?
 
As a non-US person, I'm getting confused.

It seems from what I've read here, that something covered by federal law can give whoever does the deciding the authority to prevent someone's name going onto the ballet.

Isn't the Constitution and its amendments part of federal law? In some way?

Which would mean someone's name can be barred if they have served two terms?

Or have I misunderstood?
Yes if they are only 18 years old, and not a US citizen their name can be kept off the ballot.

And if by some crazy chance they win due to write in votes, the governor and the secretary of state is not mandated to certify the win.

Why? Because they are obligated to follow the Constitution.
 
You've provided no citation to any law giving the governor the authority to withhold the state's electoral vote upon the governor's sole determination that the candidate is ineligible.


"Regard for the constitution" is not a legal cause of action. Can you cite to any statute in any state legally obliging the governor to personally certify the candidate's eligibility for President and to withhold his state's electoral votes upon that determination?
So the age regulation, the citizenship regulation, the residency regulations is meaningless and the Governor and Secretary of State have no authority to enforce it.


Sure.

;)
 
Stop putting words in my mouth and answer my question.
Authority is not required to refuse to sign something, especially if your refusal is based on a common sense understanding of the US Constitution.
 
As a non-US person, I'm getting confused.

It seems from what I've read here, that something covered by federal law can give whoever does the deciding the authority to prevent someone's name going onto the ballet.
"Going on the ballot" is generally covered by different laws that "who can be elected President."

Isn't the Constitution and its amendments part of federal law? In some way?
Under the prevailing interpretation of constitutionalism, the U.S. Constitution is the highest law of the land. Federal law is determined by Congress. This is in fairly marked contrast to the notion of constitutionalism in the United Kingdom and probably most of the Commonwealth. Under the U.S. case Marbury v. Madison, the U.S. Supreme Court has the final say in determining how all laws (including the Constitution) apply to a given set of facts, and which laws may be precluded by others. State courts have delegated authority to rule on some questions of federal law and the Constitution, but are subject to appeal into the federal judiciary. In the recent case Trump v. Anderson, it was decided that state courts do not have the authority to determine a candidate's eligibility for federal office. In the specific case of eligibility under the 14th amendment, the court further found that Congress would need to take action to provide a cause of action, such as had been previously done. Since no cause of action existed, the matter was not ripe for the court's adjudication.

Which would mean someone's name can be barred if they have served two terms?
Someone can be barred from being elected President if they have already served two terms. However, the states may not individually determine who is eligible for federal office. That must be decided by the federal judiciary.
 
"Going on the ballot" is generally covered by different laws that "who can be elected President."


Under the prevailing interpretation of constitutionalism, the U.S. Constitution is the highest law of the land. Federal law is determined by Congress. This is in fairly marked contrast to the notion of constitutionalism in the United Kingdom and probably most of the Commonwealth. Under the U.S. case Marbury v. Madison, the U.S. Supreme Court has the final say in determining how all laws (including the Constitution) apply to a given set of facts, and which laws may be precluded by others. State courts have delegated authority to rule on some questions of federal law and the Constitution, but are subject to appeal into the federal judiciary. In the recent case Trump v. Anderson, it was decided that state courts do not have the authority to determine a candidate's eligibility for federal office. In the specific case of eligibility under the 14th amendment, the court further found that Congress would need to take action to provide a cause of action, such as had been previously done. Since no cause of action existed, the matter was not ripe for the court's adjudication.


Someone can be barred from being elected President if they have already served two terms. However, the states may not individually determine who is eligible for federal office. That must be decided by the federal judiciary.
Wrong. States are not legally required to put someone on the ballot for President if they are clearly unqualified, such as if they are too young if they are not a citizen or if they have not lived in the USA for 14 years.

Trump v Anderson did not require us to become buffoons.
 
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Authority is not required to refuse to sign something, especially if your refusal is based on a common sense understanding of the US Constitution.
Legal obligations are not created by "common sense understanding." They are created by laws and ruled on by courts. You are unable to cite to any law that gives the governor of a state the power to unilaterally determine a candidate's eligibility for President and to enforce his determination by withholding the state's electoral vote.
 
Legal obligations are not created by "common sense understanding." They are created by laws and ruled on by courts. You are unable to cite to any law that gives the governor of a state the power to unilaterally determine a candidate's eligibility for President and to enforce his determination by withholding the state's electoral vote.
There is no law requiring a governor to certify the election for someone who is clearly unqualified to be president.

Nor is there any Court ruling saying such a thing.
 
Wrong. States are not legally required to put someone on the ballot if they are clearly unqualified, such as if they are too young if they are not a citizen or if they have not lived in the USA for 14 years.
Asked and answered.

Trump v Anderson did not require us to become buffoons.
Straw man. Trump v. Anderson decided that states do not have the authority to individually determine eligibility for federal office. I quoted the relevant passage and gave you a reference to the precedent, neither of which you have acknowledged.
 
Asked and answered.


Straw man. Trump v. Anderson decided that states do not have the authority to individually determine eligibility for federal office...
Wrong.

What it literally did, all that it did, is say that the states cannot decide for themselves if someone is disqualified under section 3 of the 14th amendment.

The power to enforce this rests with Congress alone.

You are applying Trump v Anderson to Article 2 Section 1 Clause 5 of the Constitution and it simply does not apply.
 
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There is no law requiring a governor to certify the election for someone who is clearly unqualified to be president.
"Clearly unqualified" according to whom? By what finding? According to what evidence. As I have said several times, the justiciability of that question is no different here than for any other requirement.

Nor is there any Court ruling things such a thing.
You keep trying to reverse the burden of proof. You are claiming a govenor has a specific legal authority to make a determination and a specific legal obligation to act in a certain way based on that determination. You've cited zero authority for any of those claims. You've just flailed at straw men and wave your hands vigorously about what you think ought to be true.
 
Wrong.

What it literally did, all that it did, is say that the states cannot decide for themselves if someone is disqualified under section 3 of the 14th amendment.
Asked and answered. I cited the relevant part of the decision. You're conflating that finding with the application of that finding to a claim under the 14th amendment.
 
"Going on the ballot" is generally covered by different laws that "who can be elected President."


Under the prevailing interpretation of constitutionalism, the U.S. Constitution is the highest law of the land. Federal law is determined by Congress. This is in fairly marked contrast to the notion of constitutionalism in the United Kingdom and probably most of the Commonwealth. Under the U.S. case Marbury v. Madison, the U.S. Supreme Court has the final say in determining how all laws (including the Constitution) apply to a given set of facts, and which laws may be precluded by others. State courts have delegated authority to rule on some questions of federal law and the Constitution, but are subject to appeal into the federal judiciary. In the recent case Trump v. Anderson, it was decided that state courts do not have the authority to determine a candidate's eligibility for federal office. In the specific case of eligibility under the 14th amendment, the court further found that Congress would need to take action to provide a cause of action, such as had been previously done. Since no cause of action existed, the matter was not ripe for the court's adjudication.


Someone can be barred from being elected President if they have already served two terms. However, the states may not individually determine who is eligible for federal office. That must be decided by the federal judiciary.
Thanks.

So two possibilies to stop the Donald are...
1. A massive reversal of party representation in both houses, allowing Congress to step in?
or
2. If he tries to stand, the state in question appeals to the Federal courts?

Oh, it's all very complicated! :(
 
Where does that clause give authority to governors to unilaterally determine the eligibility of a candidate for President and enforce that determination by withholding the state's electoral vote?
You don't need authority to refuse to sign something.

However, one could argue The authority comes from the 10th Amendment.
 
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If he tries to stand, the state in question appeals to the Federal courts?
It would have to go through the federal judiciary, yes, and rise to a level such that the court's decision would be binding nationwide on the question of eligibility on that point of evidence. The exact cause of action and method would vary by state.

In my state, each candidate for President and Vice President merely have to swear an affidavit that they are eligible for the office. Other states have more stringent requirements. Upon evidence, an aggrieved party may make a complaint in federal court asking for declarative relief in the form of the court's declaration that a candidate who "has been twice elected" is ineligible, despite the affidavit. That declaration could be tested in theory all the way to the Supreme Court, which would ostensibly rule on such silly questions as we've had in this thread regarding whether they have to be consecutive or not, etc. That aggrieved party might be a rival candidate. It might be the state attorney general, although there would have to be some wrangling to determine exactly how the state was injured. Article III requires "standing," which means a particularized injury.

The same would hold for other elements of eligibility, such as citizenship and age. Someone who appears old enough can plausibly swear an affidavit attesting to his eligibility. But if legally cognizable evidence were found to challenge that affidavit, then again the question would go to federal court for the facts to be tried and a determination made. Such an outcome in all cases might be a writ of mandamus instructing the "federal election officer" in each state (the lieutenant governor in mine, the secretary of state in most others) to remove the candidate from the ballot.

Oh, it's all very complicated! :(
It is, and I've read Erskine May.
 
You don't need authority to refuse to sign something.
You really don't know how government and laws work, and you really like reversing the burden of proof.

However, one could argue The authority comes from the 10th Amendment.
Are you making such an argument?

Trump v. Anderson is not even remotely the only case in which the Supreme Court has determined that eligibility for federal office is not within the state's power to determine. It has been prohibited to the states.

In an alternate reality where your reading of the 10th amendment gives that power to the state, what specific state constitution or state statute gives the governor of any state the power to unilaterally decide on behalf of a state whether a candidate is eligible for President and to enforce that determination by withholding the state's electoral vote? Do you understand that you can't just make up what some officer's duty is without some authority under law for that precise, specific authority?

3 U.S.C. § 5 describes the duty of the state executive in providing the certificate of ascertainment. It says "shall," which is legalese for denying any discretionary authority to the person from which that duty is required. If you want to argue that the states somehow have authority under the 10th amendment, then you have to show what aspect of the state's law or electoral procedure gives the governor that specific right. You can't do that. All you can do is throw out straw man after straw You're just making up what you want to be true and assuming that the law handwavingly-somehow agrees with you.
 
I don't remember if my question has ever been answered about whether any issue with constitutional eligibility would keep a presidential candidate off of the general election ballot because in the general election the voters are electing the people who elect the president and not actually electing the president. The answer to this might make the recent discussion irrelevant. Trump v Anderson was for the primary election ballot, not the general election ballot.
 
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You really don't know how government and laws work, and you really like reversing the burden of proof.


Are you making such an argument?

Trump v. Anderson is not even remotely the only case in which the Supreme Court has determined that eligibility for federal office is not within the state's power to determine. It has been prohibited to the states.

In an alternate reality where your reading of the 10th amendment gives that power to the state, what specific state constitution or state statute gives the governor of any state the power to unilaterally decide on behalf of a state whether a candidate is eligible for President and to enforce that determination by withholding the state's electoral vote? Do you understand that you can't just make up what some officer's duty is without some authority under law for that precise, specific authority?

3 U.S.C. § 5 describes the duty of the state executive in providing the certificate of ascertainment. It says "shall," which is legalese for denying any discretionary authority to the person from which that duty is required. If you want to argue that the states somehow have authority under the 10th amendment, then you have to show what aspect of the state's law or electoral procedure gives the governor that specific right. You can't do that. All you can do is throw out straw man after straw You're just making up what you want to be true and assuming that the law handwavingly-somehow agrees with you.
Please provide a link so i can read it.
 
I don't remember if my question has ever been answered about whether any issue with constitutional eligibility would keep a presidential candidate off of the general election ballot because in the general election the voters are electing the people who elect the president and not actually electing the president. The answer to this might make the recent discussion irrelevant. Trump v Anderson was for the primary election ballot, not the general election ballot.
The question still boiled down to whether a state court (or any state authority) could determine a candidate's eligibility for federal office. That should stand irrespective of the mechanism by which the election occurs. The fact that the people elect electors who then elect the candidate in a general election shouldn't encumber the reasoning too much.
 
Please provide a link so i can read it.
A link to what? The entire body of jurisprudence on federal electoral law?

You have yet to cite a single authority in favor of your fairly specific claim. You acknowledge Trump v. Anderson, but you won't address the argument showing why you're reading it wrong. I already cited to U.S. Term Limits, which you apparently haven't read. I've cited to 3 U.S.C. § 5, which spells out the duties of the state governors. I think I've done quite enough already this morning to attempt to educate you.

Can you give us even the glimmer of an authority that says a governor gets to do what you say he can do, in the manner you say he can do it? Any scintilla of legal reasoning beyond, "Because I say so?"
 
What's to stop him in practice? Colorado tried to kick Trump off the ballot because of his role in the January 6 events, which disqualified him from running. But the SCOTUS decided that Congress would have to pass a law for this to happen. Of course the GOP controlled congress didn't do that, and they won't do it in 2028 either, so I think Trump may very well be elected for a third term.
Yep. That move to me cemented the current Supreme Court’s complete cowardice WRT defending the constitution and, by extension, the rule of law.
 
It would have to go through the federal judiciary, yes, and rise to a level such that the court's decision would be binding nationwide on the question of eligibility on that point of evidence. The exact cause of action and method would vary by state.

In my state, each candidate for President and Vice President merely have to swear an affidavit that they are eligible for the office. Other states have more stringent requirements. Upon evidence, an aggrieved party may make a complaint in federal court asking for declarative relief in the form of the court's declaration that a candidate who "has been twice elected" is ineligible, despite the affidavit. That declaration could be tested in theory all the way to the Supreme Court, which would ostensibly rule on such silly questions as we've had in this thread regarding whether they have to be consecutive or not, etc. That aggrieved party might be a rival candidate. It might be the state attorney general, although there would have to be some wrangling to determine exactly how the state was injured. Article III requires "standing," which means a particularized injury.

The same would hold for other elements of eligibility, such as citizenship and age. Someone who appears old enough can plausibly swear an affidavit attesting to his eligibility. But if legally cognizable evidence were found to challenge that affidavit, then again the question would go to federal court for the facts to be tried and a determination made. Such an outcome in all cases might be a writ of mandamus instructing the "federal election officer" in each state (the lieutenant governor in mine, the secretary of state in most others) to remove the candidate from the ballot.


It is, and I've read Erskine May.
Thanks again.
 
The question still boiled down to whether a state court (or any state authority) could determine a candidate's eligibility for federal office. That should stand irrespective of the mechanism by which the election occurs. The fact that the people elect electors who then elect the candidate in a general election shouldn't encumber the reasoning too much.

My question is whether this is relevant, given that in a presidential election the presidential candidates technically are not on the ballot
 
My question is whether this is relevant, given that in a presidential election the presidential candidates technically are not on the ballot
In the primary, the candidate isn't technically on the ballot either. You're voting for delegates to the party convention. Most states have amended their laws to create the effect that "on the ballot" means the nominal candidate, even if there is a mechanism of delegates or electors involved as the direct recipient of the vote. In my understanding, what you're proposing is just a technicality too far.
 
I don't think he's that serious about it. More likely just ◊◊◊◊◊◊◊ with the press.

Don Jr. I kind of think will make a run, which is why Sr. said that he can't commit to endorsing Vance in 2028.
 
I still think many states especially ones run by democrats will simply not allow him on the ballot.
 
22nd amendment says no one can be elected more than twice.

So how is this enforced?

Does that mean that states must forbid such a person from appearing on the ballot? Do they have a choice?

And what if somehow they do end up on the ballot? If they happen to win does the state have to show this in their electoral votes?

I can't believe the only way to enforce this is to prevent such a person from appearing on all 50 ballots, otherwise all bets are off and he can be elected for a third term.
 

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