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Nailed: Ten Christian Myths that show Jesus never existed

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No. Most scholars think it has an authentic core, but has been added to by Christian copyists. Here is a typical view. My own view is that the passage is entirely interpolated, and is a much later fabrication. It breaks the continuity of the text in which it is embedded, and the chapter reads much more naturally if it is removed.

What?? Your admittance is most fascinating.

You have now demonstrated that you too do not always agree with "most Scholars".

My view, based on the existing evidence, is that Jesus was a figure of mythology.

It may be that Most Scholars are Christians.

Christians who DENY the existence of Jesus would be DENIED access to heaven. Jesus promised to give Christians a Mansion in heaven.

Matthew 10:33 KJV
But whosoever shall deny me before men, him will I also deny before my Father which is in heaven.


John 14:2 KJV
In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.

It would seem that Christian Scholars must say Jesus did actual exist whether or not there is evidence.

John 20:29 KJV
Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed : blessed are they that have not seen , and yet have believed .

Christian Scholars today are well Blessed--they BELIEVE Jesus existed WITHOUT actual evidence.

Most HJers are Christians??
 
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Josephus thinks Jesus was the messiah and doubts he was a man.

Paul thought Jesus was an angel who once disguised himself as a man to fool some demons.

Tacitus heard from some cultists they believed Pilate was involved in the death of some savior or other.

Oh, and all three are thought by scholars to have been tampered with by christian scribes.

Boy, I constantly forget how slippery you guys can be -- and how too much vigilance is never too much for the rest of us! Somewhere along the way, I allowed myself to drop the "XX" from the trio under discussion. ****** The original trio under discussion consisted of the four Morton Paulines, Tacitus and

ANTIQS. XX!

Now that you've cleverly glommed on to the Josephus "if he was a man" in ANTIQS.

XVIII

instead, it will be like pulling teeth to get an honest response on what is IN THE ACTUAL JESUS DESCRIPTIONS in the four Morton Paulines, Tacitus and

ANTIQS. XX!

Now the exchange has been totally derailed by the "if he was a man" bit from XVIII, which had ****-all to do with my question.

Yes, I know some HJ-ers also have questions about Antiqs. XVIII. But I was originally too *********** smart to talk about that in my big post outlining the best case for HJ to date (the post I don't have patience to link to here but which some MJ-er or other here will pretend I never submitted because that's what these ****ers do), rightly confining my presentation to Antiqs. XX only. Now my own idiocy has ********** that up one side and down the other.

Now I can whistle for an honest response on the original trio.

Stone
 
Jesus the Christ [the Anointed] in Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1 was ALIVE up to c 62-64 CE when Albinus was governor of Judea.

The assumed HJ was an obscure criminal--executed because of his disturbance at the Jewish Temple.

Plus, James the Apostle was ALIVE after James in Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1 was stoned to death.

James, the so-called brother of Jesus is NOT the James in AJ 20.9.1
 
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Jesus the Christ [the Anointed] in Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1 was ALIVE up to c 62-64 CE when Albinus was governor of Judea.
I thought he was metaphysically crucified in Could Cuckoo Land by the Archontes of Woo, in the year dot.
 
Boy, I constantly forget how slippery you guys can be -- and how too much vigilance is never too much for the rest of us! Somewhere along the way, I allowed myself to drop the "XX" from the trio under discussion. ****** The original trio under discussion consisted of the four Morton Paulines, Tacitus and

ANTIQS. XX!

Now that you've cleverly glommed on to the Josephus "if he was a man" in ANTIQS.

XVIII

instead, it will be like pulling teeth to get an honest response on what is IN THE ACTUAL JESUS DESCRIPTIONS in the four Morton Paulines, Tacitus and

ANTIQS. XX!

Now the exchange has been totally derailed by the "if he was a man" bit from XVIII, which had ****-all to do with my question.

Yes, I know some HJ-ers also have questions about Antiqs. XVIII. But I was originally too *********** smart to talk about that in my big post outlining the best case for HJ to date (the post I don't have patience to link to here but which some MJ-er or other here will pretend I never submitted because that's what these ****ers do), rightly confining my presentation to Antiqs. XX only. Now my own idiocy has ********** that up one side and down the other.

Now I can whistle for an honest response on the original trio.

Stone

No need for you to make disparaging remarks about my honesty. I am at least as honest as you are.

Did you honestly forget I started in on your 'Morton's Four'? The very first verse has Paul denying that Jesus is a man.

Do I need to put it in giant red caps for you?

The other two authors have ****-all to do with Paul.

We know christians have tampered with Josephus. That makes Antiquities XX a little less secure, as any honest person would have to admit.

Information has been supplied why an honest person might even come to suspect problems with Tacitus as well.

So climb down off your high unicorn and deal with reality for a change.

It's perverse how you think anyone who debunks your assertions must be a 'slippery character' and haven't the common decency to consider for even a moment that honest people can disagree.
 
...

I'm sorry. I was referring to zealots that reject the consensus of historical scholarship.

It is disappointing to me that after all this time people are still making the "consensus" argument.

On most issues where objective research can lead to a consensus view among the experts the reasonable argument from authority that experts disagree with a particular view is relevant and probative. But is it possible to infer from this that an alleged consensus about an HJ is probably correct?

I don't think so for a variety of reasons that have been put forth over the years in these threads. A list of what I think are some of the best reasons to completely reject the "consensus" argument when it comes to the issue of the HJ.

1. Nobody knows
It is hard to believe that with all the clues and analysis about the issue of the HJ that nobody alive knows today whether he existed or not, but that is the unassailable truth. The theory of the existence of the HJ hangs by a few thin threads and those threads contain information that is uncorroborated and it is very plausible that the information that underlies the HJ theory was made up entirely or is so corrupted that it is impossible to determine what is true about the information.. So the experts in this alleged consensus can't be right if they claim that some information about the HJ is very reliable. There is no very reliable information about the HJ and experts that claim otherwise are just wrong.

2. Who makes up this alleged consensus?
As IanS has pointed out endlessly, a lot of people that are judged to be part of this alleged consensus have ties to religious institutions, have been believers at some point in time even if they aren't now, or have a livelihood that depends on writing about the HJ. All reasons to at least be suspicious of their objectivity.

Is this supposed to be a consensus of all secular historians? If so why is the group particularly capable of determining if an HJ existed? If the consensus is supposed to consist of secular first century specialists then who are these people and what is it that they believe? Most importantly if their arguments are all that good why even make arguments about what the consensus is? All that is necessary to prove the existence of the HJ or likelihood of the existence of the HJ is to summarize the evidence for their view.

3. Political problems with candidly stating views about the HJ
How many historians are in an independent enough situation that they could candidly express views questioning the existence of the HJ? Clearly expressing a view that questioned the existence of the HJ in many university situations could be politically very difficult. I think many if not most historians are just not going to take on the issue of the HJ so it is reasonable to be very suspicious of any so called consensus of historians on the HJ when a large number of historians might be avoiding the issue entirely to avoid political issues that might threaten their job.

4. Exactly what is this consensus?
Claims about this alleged consensus not only are not clear about who it consists of, they are also unclear about exactly what the consensus view is. With some very loose definitions of what constitutes an HJ there can be no doubt that an HJ existed. Of course, there were religious movements outside the mainstream in first century Palestine and those religious movements had leaders and the NT writers must have had least used their knowledge of first century religious movements to create their Jesus character.

If a tighter definition of HJ is intended then what percentage of secular first century historical specialists believe that an HJ so defined existed? And how strongly do they believe that an HJ so defined existed? Without a clear understanding of the answers to these questions banging on the "consensus" argument drum clearly is pointless. An ambiguous claim about some unspecified consensus amongst an unspecified group clearly doesn't provide additional insight about the question of the HJ.
 
Jesus the Christ [the Anointed] in Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1 was ALIVE up to c 62-64 CE when Albinus was governor of Judea.

The assumed HJ was an obscure criminal--executed because of his disturbance at the Jewish Temple.

Plus, James the Apostle was ALIVE after James in Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1 was stoned to death.

James, the so-called brother of Jesus is NOT the James in AJ 20.9.1

It doesn't even make much sense for the James in Josephus to be an apostate like an apostle of a Jesus would be.

I suspect it is important to some arguments to confuse the two opposite characters.
 
It is disappointing to me that after all this time people are still making the "consensus" argument.

You might want to define what consensus we were talking about. I was talking about the consensus that Tacitus was authentic and authoritative.
 
It is disappointing to me that after all this time people are still making the "consensus" argument.

On most issues where objective research can lead to a consensus view among the experts the reasonable argument from authority that experts disagree with a particular view is relevant and probative. But is it possible to infer from this that an alleged consensus about an HJ is probably correct?

I don't think so for a variety of reasons that have been put forth over the years in these threads. A list of what I think are some of the best reasons to completely reject the "consensus" argument when it comes to the issue of the HJ.

1. Nobody knows
It is hard to believe that with all the clues and analysis about the issue of the HJ that nobody alive knows today whether he existed or not, but that is the unassailable truth. The theory of the existence of the HJ hangs by a few thin threads and those threads contain information that is uncorroborated and it is very plausible that the information that underlies the HJ theory was made up entirely or is so corrupted that it is impossible to determine what is true about the information.. So the experts in this alleged consensus can't be right if they claim that some information about the HJ is very reliable. There is no very reliable information about the HJ and experts that claim otherwise are just wrong.

2. Who makes up this alleged consensus?
As IanS has pointed out endlessly, a lot of people that are judged to be part of this alleged consensus have ties to religious institutions, have been believers at some point in time even if they aren't now, or have a livelihood that depends on writing about the HJ. All reasons to at least be suspicious of their objectivity.

Is this supposed to be a consensus of all secular historians? If so why is the group particularly capable of determining if an HJ existed? If the consensus is supposed to consist of secular first century specialists then who are these people and what is it that they believe? Most importantly if their arguments are all that good why even make arguments about what the consensus is? All that is necessary to prove the existence of the HJ or likelihood of the existence of the HJ is to summarize the evidence for their view.

3. Political problems with candidly stating views about the HJ
How many historians are in an independent enough situation that they could candidly express views questioning the existence of the HJ? Clearly expressing a view that questioned the existence of the HJ in many university situations could be politically very difficult. I think many if not most historians are just not going to take on the issue of the HJ so it is reasonable to be very suspicious of any so called consensus of historians on the HJ when a large number of historians might be avoiding the issue entirely to avoid political issues that might threaten their job.

4. Exactly what is this consensus?
Claims about this alleged consensus not only are not clear about who it consists of, they are also unclear about exactly what the consensus view is. With some very loose definitions of what constitutes an HJ there can be no doubt that an HJ existed. Of course, there were religious movements outside the mainstream in first century Palestine and those religious movements had leaders and the NT writers must have had least used their knowledge of first century religious movements to create their Jesus character.

If a tighter definition of HJ is intended then what percentage of secular first century historical specialists believe that an HJ so defined existed? And how strongly do they believe that an HJ so defined existed? Without a clear understanding of the answers to these questions banging on the "consensus" argument drum clearly is pointless.

An ambiguous claim about some unspecified consensus amongst an unspecified group clearly doesn't provide additional insight about the question of the HJ.

There is much value in this post.

Just on this last bit:

"...what percentage of secular first century historical specialists believe that an HJ so defined existed? And how strongly do they believe that an HJ so defined existed?"

I'm less interested in how many are riding on a particular bandwagon or the fervency of their beliefs, but rather whether their beliefs are justified.

Hence the repetitive cut-n-paste about 'the consensus says ________' is just a place holder for an argument that's gone missing.

It would be far superior to supply a specific argument with its supporting evidence so that we can form our own conclusions whether the zealousness of their beliefs are warranted.
 
The Dead Sea Scrolls do NOT mention Jesus of Nazareth and Paul of the tribe of Benjamin, the Pharisee.

They do talk about the Tribe of Benjamin, but they don't mention anyone by name.

ETA: I also notice that once again you haven't answered the question.

Is answering questions against your rules or something?
 
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Good. They don't talk about Paul of the tribe of Benjamin.

Keep reading the DSS.

They don't talk about Jesus of Nazareth.

You still haven't answered the question.

One thing they don't talk about is a Mythical Messiah who was crucified up in the sky. They talk about a righteous teacher who was killed by the Wicked Priest and his cronies.
 
You still haven't answered the question.

One thing they don't talk about is a Mythical Messiah who was crucified up in the sky. They talk about a righteous teacher who was killed by the Wicked Priest and his cronies.

It is already admitted the DSS says nothing of Jesus of Nazareth and Paul the Pharisee of the Tribe of Benjamin.

You don't even know that there were MULTIPLE irreconcilable versions of the Jesus story in antiquity. Some even claimed the Son of God was NOT born. Some claimed the Son of God was a Phantom.

Can you recall the number of myth fables about Romulus and Satan the Devil?
 
It is already admitted the DSS says nothing of Jesus of Nazareth and Paul the Pharisee of the Tribe of Benjamin.

You don't even know that there were MULTIPLE irreconcilable versions of the Jesus story in antiquity. Some even claimed the Son of God was NOT born. Some claimed the Son of God was a Phantom.

Can you recall the number of myth fables about Romulus and Satan the Devil?

And once again, you haven't answered the question.

I do know that there were many versions of Jesus stories that didn't make it into the NT. What has that got to do with anything?

I know there were many stories about Daniel Boone, Davy Crockett and George Washington too.

Just consider for one second that maybe you don't know everything...
 
No. Most scholars think it has an authentic core, but has been added to by Christian copyists. Here is a typical view. My own view is that the passage is entirely interpolated, and is a much later fabrication. It breaks the continuity of the text in which it is embedded, and the chapter reads much more naturally if it is removed.

I completely agree with you there, Craig B.
It does raise questions about the other passage in Ant. that mentions Christ, doesn't it?



Josephus thinks Jesus was the messiah and doubts he was a man.

Paul thought Jesus was an angel who once disguised himself as a man to fool some demons.

Tacitus heard from some cultists they believed Pilate was involved in the death of some savior or other.

Oh, and all three are thought by scholars to have been tampered with by christian scribes.
"thought by a tiny minority of scholars" you mean.
I was referring only to Tacitus. It seems that we agree on that point.
You might want to define what consensus we were talking about. I was talking about the consensus that Tacitus was authentic and authoritative.

Nice goalpost shifting.
In any case, while you may find consensus arguments convincing on the subject of Tacitus' references to Christ and to Christian persecution under Nero, not everyone does.
How old was Tacitus at the time of the fire of 64?



...my big post outlining the best case for HJ to date (the post I don't have patience to link to here but which some MJ-er or other here will pretend I never submitted because that's what these ****ers do)

I'm glad you brought up that post yet again, Stone.
You give me the chance to mention that it's been a great influence in my own reading and thinking on the subject of this elusive HJ.
I found an old vridar blog article on the subject of those core sayings that might interest you.
http://vridar.org/2010/05/22/jesus-a-saviour-just-like-the-kings-and-gods-of-egypt-and-babylon/

The blog entry is based on Neil Godfrey's refections after reading Thomas L. Thompson's The Messiah Myth.
Some scholars see in Jesus’ sayings certain gems that are unique or holy or brilliantly enlightened and worthy of the deepest respect. They see in his deeds of healing and concern for the poor and weak a noble character worthy of devotion.

Some see the themes of concern for the poor and condemnation of the rich and powerful as evidence that Jesus was tapping in to popular revolutionary or resistance sentiments among peasants and displaced persons in early first century Galilee.

Other scholars see in the saying evidence of economic exploitation such that a sense of resentment could easily morph into a Jesus movement.

All of the above interpretations are thrown into question when one notices their echoes in the OT – and especially throughout the wider world of the OT. The wordings vary, but they are all clear reiterations of the same motifs.

The article goes on to develop the idea with a fair number of examples, of course.
I'd be interested in your thoughts, as well as those of all the people posting and reading here, on the premise that those core sayings form part of a tradition rather than being "out of the blue" or strikingly original.
 
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I completely agree with you there, Craig B.
It does raise questions about the other passage in Ant. that mentions Christ, doesn't it?
Of course there are questions, but the issue here is not so clear. I am inclined to think that "called the Christ" is an interpolated gloss, but I'm by no means certain. The presence of another Jesus in the passage, the son of Damneus, raises suspicions.

If we take the "Christ" out, we are left with a credible tale. A rogue high priest kills a certain James. The King deposes the miscreant and appoints the victim's brother in his place. That would explain why Josephus gives us the name of the brother. It becomes relevant later in the paragraph. But a Christian copyist misread the whole thing and added in an identifying gloss explaining (wrongly) who the Jesus was. That's plausible, and I'm inclined, though without great tenacity, to support that theory.

There are nearly twenty people named Jesus mentioned in the works of Josephus.
 
It is already admitted the DSS says nothing of Jesus of Nazareth and Paul the Pharisee of the Tribe of Benjamin.

The DSS are not witnesses to first century C.E. Judaism and Christianity; the key sectarian works (the Damascus Document, Community Rule, the Halakhic Letter, etc.) date to the second and first centuries B.C.E. So key works from the first century C.E. that one would expect to find in the DSS, such as the Book of Parables and the Assumption of Moses, are not extant at Qumran. This does not exclude the fact that first century C.E. copies of older biblical and sectarian works were stored in the caves. One would similarly not expect to find the Book of Mormon in Sir Isaac Newton's library.
 
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