Bart Ehrman on the Historical Jesus

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Welcome, Phil.

Thanks for your commentary!

Interestingly, many have pointed out this is one of the fundamental misunderstandings that mythicists have regarding the study of history. As we have seen in this thread, they seem to infer that any text which describes the supernatural as real is automatically disqualified. So even if Paul might mention that he met the biological brother of Jesus, it can't be considered evidence.

I would add another misunderstanding closely linked to the ultra-positivism:
They demand the same type of evidence to Ancient History that would be required in a judicial process or even higher.

Some rigid statements to the contrary made by the historicists don’t help to relax the debate, of course.
 
Ah, there's the rub. One of the very big questions to answer is whether or not any of the criteria pass muster since everyone and his cousin says s/he follows the same criteria and yet they all seem to end up with a different historical Jesus.

The usual suspects are the ones that Gregoire linked to in his post. I'll relist them once I have the time.

But I will say this -- there is no way to tell the true parts from the false parts. The only thing any historical criterion can do is help to figure out what might lead one to think one way more than another. It can never assign truth or falsity only relative probability.


ETA:
Sorry, had to attend to other matters for a few minutes. The most commonly used criteria are dissimilarity, independent attestation, and historical appropriateness

I wonder how independent attestation works since outside the gospels there's really nothing solid about Jesus.
 
I would add another misunderstanding closely linked to the ultra-positivism:
They demand the same type of evidence to Ancient History that would be required in a judicial process or even higher.

Some rigid statements to the contrary made by the historicists don’t help to relax the debate, of course.

As I said before Josh McDowell's whole 'Evidence That Demands a Verdict' nonsense of treating the evidence for a historical Jesus as if it was being used in a court case was one of the more bonehead things to come out of the apologist side of things.

The further you get from the introduction of the printing press the more "indirect witnesses" and oral tradition (which as hearsay would get laughed out of most courts) have to be used.

Take the Vinland sagas written some 200 years after the events they describe for example. They are our only written source regarding the Norse colonization of the Americas so the historian is stuck using them.

The Historia Augusta is another example.

Suetonius Twelve Caesars is not only based on imperial archives but also gossip. In fact, Suetonius lost access to the imperial archives shortly after starting writing the work so it is not clear where much of the information on the rulers is coming from. But it is the go to work for most of the information we have on these rulers.

Then you have the Bermuda Triangle style half truths like 5000 Greek Manuscripts (nearly all except for less then 50 are after our oldest complete Bibles in the 4th century).

This is followed by the Bermuda Triangle style fiction of the evidence being on par with Socrates, Hippocrates, or Julius Caesar (all of whom have know contemporaries who met them) or if they really don't understand ancient history comparison with some post printing press person or event is presented which hits its own level of stupid when the Holocaust or the Moon landing is the event being used. If they want to show they don't understand the difference between social and physical science you get evolution-creationism as the counter.

I asked a long time ago if the evidence for a HJ was so strong why would anyone have to resort to this Bermuda Triangle level of nonsense and so far haven't really gotten an answer.
 
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I wonder how independent attestation works since outside the gospels there's really nothing solid about Jesus.

Because the Bible isn't a single source, it is many sources bundled into a compilation.

There are other early writings that didn't make it into the bible which also offer different perspectives.

All of these texts need to be viewed critically. No one (with the possible exception of dejudge) just reads them and accepts them at face value. You'll never find an Academic arguing that Jesus didn't exist because Justin Martyr said his dad was a ghost (or whatever). That kind of argument requires a very special level of ignorance.
 
I wonder how independent attestation works since outside the gospels there's really nothing solid about Jesus.

It's admittedly a little dicey, which is why I said above, there's the rub.

I'm sure you know the basic way it works -- Mark was the first gospel and all the synoptics that use passages from Mark cannot be considered independent. The material that looks original to the other two synoptics are considered independent. The gospel of John and Paul's letters are considered independent. Josephus is considered independent, but there are the problems in believing that Josephus actually wrote anything about an historical Jesus.

The problem, of course, is that there is no way to determine if any of the Christian materials are really independent of one another.

Based on the very different view of Jesus from Paul's letters and the synoptic gospels they certainly look independent. But the gospels also seem to be doing something very different from what Paul was writing about in his letters, so I am not sure how we can determine independence. That certainly makes the criterion pretty unstable.


ETA
These are just some of what I see as limitations with this criterion. I think it is still useful, though.
 
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Really? It may well be that the chairman of my department agrees with you. I will check with him and see what he says.

If you would like to address something I said I will be willing to discuss it with you. I am not interested in following diatribes with anything more than silence -- but I thought I should let you know before I do not respond to you in future.

I will expose your diatribe whether or not you respond.
 
I will expose your diatribe whether or not you respond.

Is that any way to welcome new members? For Shame!


Although your work in this thread has done more to weaken the support for MJ than anything I could have come up with, so thanks for that.

Sterling work.
 
Thank you for the kind words.

I have not read any of Carrier's stuff. Is 'The Christian Delusion' a good place to start?


ETA:
Just downloaded 'Proving History' to the Kindle. Looks like just the thing I love to read. Thanks.


I haven't read 'Proving History', but from what I have heard, it sounds like a good place to start to get an idea where he is coming from.

As far as I know, he is still working on his book about his mythicist hypothesis. He discusses and debates it here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0EulhS8EkJk

I don't really endorse his conclusions, although I am a fan of Bayes Theorem, but I always appreciate scholarly endeavors to challenge the status quo.



'The Christian Delusion' is an anthology of multiple authors to which he contributed 2 chapters: Chapter 11 'Why the Resurrection is Unbelievable' and Chapter 15 'Christianity Was Not Responsible for Modern Science'.
 
Is that any way to welcome new members? For Shame!


Although your work in this thread has done more to weaken the support for MJ than anything I could have come up with, so thanks for that.

Sterling work.

I expose diatribe. The HJ argument is baseless and tantamount to diatribe.

Phil2112 claimed "Most academic HJ research does not concern itself with Jesus as messiah -- that is a matter of faith"

Such a statement is diatribe because Scholars use Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1 where a character is called Jesus the Christ to argue for an HJ.

Scholars also use Tacitus Annals 15.44 and claim Christus is Jesus Christ in the Bible.

When will the diatribe end?

Scholars are very much concerned with any character called Jesus Christ in or out the Bible.
 
Such a statement is diatribe because Scholars use Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1 where a character is called Jesus the Christ to argue for an HJ.

Scholars also use Tacitus Annals 15.44 and claim Christus is Jesus Christ in the Bible.

When will the diatribe end?
Today's picked up word is "diatribe" which may be defined as "abusive denunciation". But noting that these words
Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus, and a most mischievous superstition, thus checked for the moment, again broke out not only in Judæa, the first source of the evil, but even in Rome ...
refer to "Jesus Christ in the Bible" doesn't look to me like an abusive denunciation. It looks very reasonable in fact. Whether that means there really was a Jesus Christ is a different matter; but if there was one or not, the one in the Bible, authentic or not, is the one Tacitus is referring to, I'm pretty sure. And whether this belief is justified or not, calling it "diatribe" doesn't make any sense at all.
 
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Today's picked up word is "diatribe" which may be defined as "abusive denunciation".

Conveniently, you seem not to realise that your abusive denunciation "diatribe" was first introduced by Phil2112.


Craig B said:
But noting that these words refer to "Jesus Christ in the Bible" doesn't look to me like an abusive denunciation. It looks very reasonable in fact. Whether that means there really was a Jesus Christ is a different matter; but if there was one or not, the one in the Bible, authentic or not, is the one Tacitus is referring to, I'm pretty sure. And whether this belief is justified or not, calling it "diatribe" doesn't make any sense at all.

The existing Tacitus' Annals is an 11th century copy and is completely useless to argue for an historical Jesus.

Tacitus Annals 15.44 does not mention Jesus anywhere and did not claim anyone was crucified after causing a disturbance at the Jewish Temple.

Plus, many persons were called Christ in antiquity and even before the Jesus story was composed.

Kings and High Priests of the Jews were called Christ [Anointed].

King David was called Christ [Anointed] and Theophilus of Antioch was called a Christian--NOT because of the Jesus but because he BELIEVED he was Anointed.

Essentially, the supposed Jesus Christ was NOT necessary for a Christian cult.
 
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Conveniently, you seem not to realise that your abusive denunciation "diatribe" was first introduced by Phil2112.

You seem not to realise that CraigB was pointing out your habit of picking up words you don't understand and using them in the wrong context.

The existing Tacitus' Annals is an 11th century copy and is completely useless to argue for an historical Jesus.

Tacitus Annals 15.44 does not mention Jesus anywhere and did not claim anyone was crucified after causing a disturbance at the Jewish Temple.

Plus, many persons were called Christ in antiquity and even before the Jesus story was composed.

Kings and High Priests of the Jews were called Christ [Anointed].

King David was called Christ [Anointed] and Theophilus of Antioch was called a Christian--NOT because of the Jesus but because he BELIEVED he was Anointed.

Essentially, the supposed Jesus Christ was NOT necessary for a Christian cult.

All those kings and high priests suffered the ultimate punishment under Pilate, did they?

Your arguments are still getting worse. I didn't think it was possible.
 
All those kings and high priests suffered the ultimate punishment under Pilate, did they?

Nonsense argument as Paul's writings don't give us a time frame, we don't know where Tacitus got his information from, and everything points to the Gospels likely being written down in the 130s.

Paul's conversion is thought to be no later then 37 CE so if you are working from the idea that Jesus crucifixion was a recent event when Pilate is a logical go to...doesn't mean the story is history.
 
Nonsense argument as Paul's writings don't give us a time frame, we don't know where Tacitus got his information from, and everything points to the Gospels likely being written down in the 130s.

No. The point is that the "Christus" in Tacitus is the same one as in the bible. Not King David or Cyrus or Solomon...

There were people in Rome before the fall of the temple who were worshipping "Christ who suffered the ultimate punishment under Pilate", not Christ the ancient King from a 1000 years prior.

The gospels show indications of being written well before 130 (except John maybe). Why are you lying about that? We've been through that argument before and it doesn't hold up to scrutiny.


Paul's conversion is thought to be no later then 37 CE so if you are working from the idea that Jesus crucifixion was a recent event when Pilate is a logical go to...doesn't mean the story is history.

What? Tacitus is only one part of the puzzle. No one is basing all of this on one passage from one source.
 
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As I said before Josh McDowell's whole 'Evidence That Demands a Verdict' nonsense of treating the evidence for a historical Jesus as if it was being used in a court case was one of the more bonehead things to come out of the apologist side of things.

I do not understand who you refer by "apologist side". I do not know if anyone in this forum or elsewhere. Nor do I know well the case of the "Bermuda Triangle" and I can not go very far in comparison. But who equated the required evidence in a court of justice with the Ancient History on this forum was an advocate of the non-existence of Jesus. And this is not the first time I see it.
 
Conveniently, you seem not to realise that your abusive denunciation "diatribe" was first introduced by Phil2112.
And you picked it up and are using it in strange ways not consistent with its normally accepted meaning.
Kings and High Priests of the Jews were called Christ [Anointed].
So you think this might refer to a King or high priest?
Christus, from whom the name had its origin, suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus
What King or high priest suffered execution by Pilate? If Tacitus is referring to a "christ" executed by Pilate, then he's referring to the one described in the gospels, whether these contain any authentic accounts of events or not.
 
...If Tacitus is referring to a "christ" executed by Pilate, then he's referring to the one described in the gospels, whether these contain any authentic accounts of events or not.

Just to add to the mix, here's another take on Tacitus' use of the word Christiani
"In the well-known section of Annales 15.44, Tacitus refers unmistakably to "Christiani." We shall presently take a fresh look at another passage thought to be at least partly Tacitean and which also mentions a sect called "Christiani." In so doing, this will demonstrate how much historical data can be successfully concealed in one brief passage. As will be seen, when it comes to these "Christiani," things are not at all as they have seemed. The second passage in question is commonly known as Tacitus' fragment 2, much of which is generally considered to have once been part of the now lost portion of the fifth book of Tacitus' Historiae. Fragment 2 was preserved by the Christian historian Sulpicius Severus in his Chronica 2.30.6-7 (ca. 400-403 CE).

This fragment will enable us to demonstrate who the Christiani really were, and, as we shall see, they were not Christians. ..."
http://infidels.org/library/modern/eric_laupot/nazoreans.html
 
Just to add to the mix, here's another take on Tacitus' use of the word Christiani
"In the well-known section of Annales 15.44, Tacitus refers unmistakably to "Christiani." We shall presently take a fresh look at another passage thought to be at least partly Tacitean and which also mentions a sect called "Christiani." In so doing, this will demonstrate how much historical data can be successfully concealed in one brief passage. As will be seen, when it comes to these "Christiani," things are not at all as they have seemed. The second passage in question is commonly known as Tacitus' fragment 2, much of which is generally considered to have once been part of the now lost portion of the fifth book of Tacitus' Historiae. Fragment 2 was preserved by the Christian historian Sulpicius Severus in his Chronica 2.30.6-7 (ca. 400-403 CE).

This fragment will enable us to demonstrate who the Christiani really were, and, as we shall see, they were not Christians. ..."
http://infidels.org/library/modern/eric_laupot/nazoreans.html

That was odd. He says this:
This fragment will enable us to demonstrate who the Christiani really were, and, as we shall see, they were not Christians. Here as elsewhere in this paper I am using "Christians" (as opposed to "Christiani"), "Christianity," and "the Church"to refer to the Pauline version only.

The present study demonstrates that frag. 2 is a primary historical source that in all probability correctly identifies frag. 2's "Christiani" as the Latin name for a group of major participants in the first Jewish revolt against Rome of 66-73 CE. In addition, we shall see that the Hebrew name for at least a portion, if not all, of this group was probably "Netsarim" (Nazoreans).

He then goes on to describe the Ebionite Jewish Christians and linking them to Qumran.

Apparently he thinks not being Jewish was a prerequisite for being Christian.

The people he describes as "Nazorean" were the same ones Josephus calls "Zealots"...
 
OK, good. Yes, Ehrman provides his criteria for why he thinks that it is more likely that an historical Jesus existed. I think the biggest controversy folks often object to Ehrman is his conclusions on what and how much he thinks is historical.



You may not have seen all that has been posted here and in several concurrent HJ threads, but it has been shown with quotes repeated throughout Ehrman’s 2013 book and from what he said live on film on shortly after that books publication, that Ehrman does not merely say “it is more likely that an historical Jesus existed”, he repeatedly says it is “certain” that Jesus “definitely” existed. And describing his views on this (i.e. his opinion of absolute unguarded “certainty”), he says that “almost every properly trained scholar on the planet” agrees with his views.


I think this is probably just a fine point, but I think what the HJ 'believers' say is only that they think there is enough evidence provided by the analysis to support an historical personage behind all the myth. I don't think that is much of a claim and don't completely understand why it causes so much controversy. There is no way to tell anything much about an HJ since most (if not all) of the gospels were stories invented to argue why the author thought Jesus was the messiah.

Essentially this seems, at least to me, to be an argument where one side says it's all myth and the other side says it's probably 99.9% myth. I don't understand why the latter claim is controversial to anyone, but it certainly seems to be.



Oh sure, we might all be able to agree that much of what is said about Jesus in the bible appears to be untrue or “myth“ (we don’t have to go as far as saying it‘s “99.9%“). But the main dispute which causes these threads to persist (one of several problems actually), is that the HJ side say that the evidence is good enough for them each to decide that it is more likely than not that Jesus existed, i.e. that the evidence provides greater than 50% likelihood of his existence. And several people here have put their own probability on that with some saying 60:40, others saying 70:30, and I think at least one said 90% probability of Jesus existing.

And as noted above, almost everyone on the HJ side has supported those 50%+ positions by constantly appealing to the authority of academics such as Bart Ehrman and Dominic Crossan, who in fact insist that the evidence is so good as to make the existence not merely 51%, 60%, 70% or 90%, but in fact 100% absolutely “certain”.

So there is a rather obvious “disconnect” there in the logic of people here who on the one hand have repeatedly said (literally hundreds of times in these HJ threads) that sceptics here are not fit to question the expert assessment of Bible scholars like Ehrman and Crossan (and/or any of the other half dozen or so scholars that have been named and discussed here), and yet when asked about the statement of 100% certainty by these bible scholars, the HJ proponents here themselves reject that expert opinion and say that the evidence only supports 51% - 90% likelihood of a HJ. IOW - the HJ side is also rejecting the expert conclusion of what Bart Ehrman assures us is quote “almost every properly trained scholar on the planet”.

But far worse than that seeming illogicality - when asked what evidence these bible scholars present to conclude that Jesus existed, nobody here can cite any clear-cut statement of reliable & credible evidence cited by any of these bible scholars. And in fact the two main pieces of evidence cited by Ehrman are (1)that he believes the bible when it says that Paul met “James the Lords Brother”, and (2)that Jesus is exceptionally well “attested” for any figure in ancient history, because there exist no less than 7 “Independent” attestations, those being Paul, g-Mark, G-Mathew, G-Luke, and the hypothetical writings called Q, M, and L … he says those are all independent attestations to a real Jesus, and that level of attestation is strong evidence for his existence. Dominic Crossan has similarly said that (quoting roughly from memory) “the crucifixion of Jesus is just about the most certain fact in all of history”.

So that is supposed to be the main evidence which is presented by Bible scholars like Ehrman and Crossan. And that is supposed to be the sort of unassailable expert assessment which sceptics here are unfit to question, and for which sceptics here have been repeatedly accused of being “liar, lying, uneducated, idiot, dishonest, moron…”.



I have to disagree with your last point. It seems to me that there is too easy dismissal of the evidence from the gospels and letters of Paul. Of course the gospels are invented stories. Personally I find piecing out why I think different stories were invented an interesting exercise. It's really just a diversion, though, because it amounts to nothing.

But I think it is mistake to think that just because a story is mythical that there is no kernel of 'truth' behind some of the stories. It also, at least superficially, if not actually looks like the wholesale rejection of this material reveals an anti-Christian and/or anti-religious bias.



There might always be some truthful elements in any story no matter how tainted the entire story is with persistent and proven fictions being presented on every page. But the problem with any testimony like that is that the huge number of persistent fictions makes the entire work completely unreliable as a source. And especially so when none of those sources ever claimed to have known any messiah called Jesus, when they could not quote any known person who ever wrote to confirm that they had ever met Jesus, and where none of it is known from any original writing by any of those named people anyway, but instead only known from what even more unknown religious copyists wrote as copies made centuries later. That is not a reliable source by any stretch of any objective imagination.



One of the ways of talking about this issue is to mention other clearly fictional accounts that people believe in -- like Sherlock Holmes or Harry Potter. The Sherlock Holmes example is quite a poor choice for the purposes of this discussion, though, because Holmes' character was based on an actual living human being.

Just to put things into perspective, what the HJers are saying is that they think there was a person behind some of the stories just like Joseph Bell was the inspiration for Sherlock Holmes.



I am not familiar with the stories of Sherlock Holmes, and I don’t know who Joseph Bell was. But presumably you are saying that there is good evidence for the existence of a real person named Joseph Bell?

OK, so where is the real person behind the Jesus stories? Where is the evidence (comparable to your example of Joseph Bell), of the known real person behind the Jesus beliefs?

Actually, I can give you a very clear answer to that myself, and it’s an answer which has been spelt out by all sceptics in these HJ threads, and spelt out in all sceptic books ever written about Jesus. And that answer is that the actual story behind Paul’s Jesus and Jesus beliefs written in the gospels, is in fact the Old Testament prophecy of a messiah stretching back many centuries before any NT biblical writers were even born. That of course was never a real person such as Mr Bell, but it was a very real religious belief held by everyone in that region. IOW - the figure behind the Jesus belief was the OT prophecy of a coming messiah to save the souls of the nation and raise the faithful unto heaven. And that prior belief is stated very clearly indeed in Paul’s letters and in the gospels of Mark and Mathew … and if you read Randel Helms book (Gospel Fictions), Helms spends the entirety of the book describing and quoting in detail how g-MarK and G-Mathew etc. constructed their Jesus stories from what they believed to have been written in various books of the old testament.



I think there is plenty of argument to be made about how much historical information one can glean from the gospels and Paul's letters. My own view is that we can tell almost nothing about the guy.

While it might be the case that there was no historical person behind these stories, I am not convinced by the arguments claiming to prove the purely mythic nature of Jesus. I just, personally, think it makes more sense to default to a real person that a group of people thought some really odd things about.

Paul was clearly very wrong about what he thought about this person whether or not he existed. Paul seemed to think the end of current time was right around the corner. That belief is demonstrably incorrect since time keeps marching on, no Jehova or Jesus in sight.




I don’t recall anyone here “claiming to prove the purely mythic nature of Jesus“. Can you quote anyone here claiming that? I certainly have never done that, nor implied or even so much as hinted at any such thing. And in fact, I have not even read any sceptic books which claim that either. Certainly not in the books I have from Wells and Ellegard.

What sceptics here have said is that the Bible is not reliable enough as a source of evidence. And certainly not in the case of an exceptionally important figure like Jesus. Exceptionally important claims do require better than minimal evidence. “Evidence” which in this case appears to boil down entirely to evidence of peoples 1st century religious beliefs as told in the bible, but not actually any evidence of Jesus himself as a living person.

Could Jesus have existed? Sure, he might have done. And I have said that here many times myself.

But the problem is that there is really no reliable or credible evidential account of his existence. Really, none at all. In which case I do not see how one can make a logical argument to say that he probably existed (i.e. as a likelihood greater than 50%), let alone bible scholars insisting that it's good enough to declare 100% certainty, and for HJ people here to describe anyone who disputes what those scholars say as "idiot, lying, liar, dishonest, uneducated, moron...".

The problem is the complete lack of reliable credible evidence.
 
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