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Nailed: Ten Christian Myths that show Jesus never existed

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A lot of the writing about early Christianity seems to assume what I think of as the standard secular Jesus narrative about the origin of Christianity:

1. Early first century Jewish sect exists that the HJ plays a significant role in
2. Paul changes the message of the Jewish sect into something more universal and spreads it to the Gentiles essentially founding Christianity as we know it.

The problem I see with this scenario is that there is no information about how this actually happened. People just assume that Paul, in some magic way, was able to convince a bunch of people who followed some unidentified possibly pagan religion to drop their religious views and hop on the Christianity bandwagon. There is no explanation of where these folks who spoke Greek and who had an obsessive knowledge of the OT that wrote the Gospels came from.

I hadn't thought much about the fact that my ideas about the founding of Christianity being wrapped up with an existing religious group are not mentioned by most writers on early Christian history. They seem to assume that certain NT derived facts are true about the origin of Christianity but they don't seem to be interested in looking at what the underlying truth of the origin of Christianity might be. Or maybe it's my problem and I just don't get what they think is so obvious that they can just assume it to be true.
 
This was exactly the kind of thing I was looking for. I notice that the article claims that this isn't the earliest Christian Church, just the earliest house church discovered. I wonder where the earlier churches were.


Wikipedia has a list or the earliest churches:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_oldest_church_buildings

The Dura-Europos church is the earliest in that list.

I took a look at the on-line pre-view of the book that seems to be the principal source for the Wikipedia article on the Dura-Europos Church. His book is limited to pre-Constantine churches and might be an interesting read.

http://books.google.com/books?id=swtI9Cpyl3kC&printsec=frontcover#v=onepage&q&f=false

He separated the history of Christianity by three critical points:
1. The origin of the religion and the time of Paul
2. 180 CE
3. Constantine

This is some of what he had to say about the second critical point:

It sounds to me like he is putting a lower limit of about 180 CE for the unequivocal identification of Christian churches or artifacts. Before that he thinks that the religion hasn't differentiated enough to have its stuff be uniquely identifiable. But it also suggests that it isn't possible to prove dejudge wrong with archeological findings. Maybe the reason there isn't any pre 180 CE Christian stuff that has been identified is because there wasn't any.

One Christian religious structure that might be somewhat earlier is St. Peter's tomb. St. Peter's tomb is a site under the St. Peter's Basilica in the Vatican. I don't think Peter made it to Rome if he existed so I don't think Peter's actually buried there, but there is some reason to believe the site might date to about 160 CE. The first St. Peter's Basilica which was probably built under Constantine seems to have been intentionally built over this earlier site which was probably believed to be the site where Peter was buried when it was built.

I read the Wikipedia article, and it was interesting, but the article didn't go into much detail about what was on the scrolls. Was there something there that was of particular interest to you or was it just the technological feat of being able to read them?


Thanks for a fascinating post, davefoc.
I'm out the door to what promises to be an intense working day, but when the dust settles I'll go into the post more thoroughly.
It's always a pleasure to see what you manage to find on the Web, isn't it.


As for the Herculaneum library, the fact that it's an entire library from the first century is intriguing in itself. Granted, much has been lost but the techniques developed by the Brigham Young Uni seem our best bet for a unique leper's squint into the first century. I'll dredge out the linked articles on the subject I found while researching that Sator Square found in Pompeya.
 
Thanks for the response. Just a few comments:
The criteria that I believe to be a reasonable basis for determining whether something is evidence of a particular proposition or not are these:

1. For something to be evidence it must not be known to be false
2. For something to be evidence it must be supportive of the proposition if it were true.

I don't mean in anyway to say that the proposition has to be true. If both parts one and two are true the proposition still might be false..


Just on a technical point - I think the “proposition” (ie the actual claim, such as “Jesus existed”) does need to be true if there is to be real evidence of it. Because you cannot have evidence of something which never happened. If the event never happened, then whatever you thought was evidence of the event, was not in fact evidence of the event.

In that respect, what we call “evidence” is information that only becomes judged to be evidence after we have decided that the event was true, such that the information was indeed evidence of the event really happening.

But before we reach that positive decision of saying the event did happen, what we might call the “evidence”, is really only such things as testimony, claims, and various types of information thought to support the existence of the event.

The problem with the gospels being offered as “evidence” of Jesus is that they cannot actually be evidence of Jesus. Because none of the authors actually knew any evidence of Jesus.

All those gospel authors knew were the stories that other people had told. And even those stories came to the gospel authors only as hearsay from other people who again did not themselves know any evidence about Jesus. All they claimed to know was that earlier unnamed people had once said that Jesus had disciples who were with Jesus to see these things for themselves.

That’s actually the problem with any hearsay evidence, and it’s the reason why we have laws to prevent unscrupulous lawyers tying to mislead a jury with that sort of “evidence”. The problem with it is;- the hearsay witness is not actually a witness at all to any of the evidence he is claiming. He cannot actually provide any evidence, because he does not know any evidence!

That’s why the gospels do not, and really cannot, provide any evidence of Jesus.

But even without that sort of consideration, which as I say really should rule out any consideration of the gospels as evidence of Jesus (because by definition they cannot provide evidence of Jesus), what those gospel authors wrote makes them demonstrably unworthy as a source. If they had claimed just one or two things which seemed to be minor miracles, but which might possibly be argued as faith healing mistaken for a miracle, then you might just overlook that amongst the entirety of the gospel writing. But they don’t do that. On the contrary, all the gospels are packed from end to end with what are very clearly claims of numerous but impossible miracles. That means these authors consistently and repeatedly wrote things that were entirely untrue.

The same applies to their use of the OT as a source of their stories. If it were the case that just one or two of the gospel stories appeared to be suspiciously similar to what had been written centuries before in the OT, then again you might overlook that as just a coincidence. But on the contrary, numerous of the gospel stories can be shown to have been taken from what the gospel authors thought had been written in various books of the OT. So that is not a coincidence. I think in all honesty we have to conclude that the origin of the Jesus stories was the OT.


So just to summarise al the above -

- the gospels were not providing any evidence of Jesus, because they did not know any evidence of Jesus. They were merely reporting hearsay stories from earlier hearsay sources that could also not be providing any evidence of Jesus. But what those hearsay gospel writers and their hearsay informants told as their stories of Jesus, were actually obtained from their interpretation of various passages in the OT. And in drawing those conclusions from their ancient OT, they told the stories as utterly fantastic and certainly untrue accounts of constant miracles.



Looking at the issue of historicity of Jesus with regards to these criteria, I think in general the earliest evidence of the HJ is the most unreliable but if it were true it would provide the best support for the proposition that an HJ existed. Later evidence for existence of the HJ tends to be more reliable but it also provides only weak support for the existence of the HJ even if it is true.


Again just on a technical note - in legal cases it is almost always found that the earliest “evidence”/testimony is the most reliable, and that it is the later claims that become increasingly unreliable. Eg in witness statements, it is invariably the first things that a witness says that are the most revealing and important, whereas later more detailed statements are often found to be untrue/misleading.

But as far as the bible is concerned as evidence of Jesus - what are you thinking of as the earliest writing vs. the latest writing? Afaik, the only known source of any writing about Jesus comes from what we call the gospels and Paul’s letters, none of which are known in any original form, but instead only from later Christian copies where the date of the copying is often largely a matter of guesswork, probably often a matter of guessing optimistically early dates hoping to support a real Jesus, but really not known with any reliable accuracy at all.

In which case I think it would be very difficult to tell which of those copies was the earliest and which were the later ones.


On the issue of confirmation bias, what I tried to say with regard to your insistence on what is evidence and what is not evidence is that it suggests that confirmation bias might be influencing your views. You very well may have a good handle on your confirmation biases with regard to this issue, but you seem to have a gut feel self ascribed ability to judge what is evidence and what is not evidence with regard to this issue and the process is not completely apparent by which you make that judgment and one idea is that only something that supports your view can be evidence.


Well see all the above re. why hearsay writing in the gospels is not actually evidence of Jesus.




As to the criteria for reliable evidence in physics: One problem I see with the issue of transferring a sense of what is reliable evidence in physics to what is reliable evidence in history is that evidence in physics can usually be recreated so if something can't be recreated it is reasonable to discount the evidence entirely. This leads, I propose, to a situation in physics where distinguishing different degrees of reliability with regard to evidence isn't that important. I would imagine that evidence would generally be either very reliable or very unreliable. Perhaps there is sometime where there is ambiguity where attempts to recreate the evidence are ongoing but eventually things settle out and the results are either reliable evidence or just flawed experiments..



I don’t think we really want to get too deeply into what constitutes evidence in science, do we? Otherwise we might be here for years arguing about that alone.

But I don’t think there is essentially any difference in the concept of “evidence”, whatever subject we are talking about. The difference in the present context, is only that the sort of thing being offered from the bible as evidence of Jesus, would never be accepted in any science or in any properly objective field.

It is not evidence of Jesus for the gospel writers to say they themselves could provide no evidence of Jesus (because they never knew him and only reported hearsay), but that other unknown people had told stories of Jesus, but where those unknown n people could not present it as evidence either because they too did not know Jesus, but where they said they believed that even earlier people had known Jesus and knew the stories that were told.

That sort of gospel writing is not evidence of Jesus. It is at best evidence of a chain of un-evidenced unconfirmed non-witness story telling.




As to your comments about evidence from the NT
I think that you and I agree that the Gospels do not provide much support for the existence of an HJ. I am not sure what to make of them actually. Mostly from my perspective they are obvious fiction. They convey stories in a style in which the storyteller makes no effort to provide a plausible explanation as to who could be present to be recording the events. My thought has been that this style worked because people that read the Gospels had a sense that supernatural events are possible and their assumption was that the story writer could have derived his knowledge of events supernaturally.


I don’t think the gospel authors suggest that they themselves obtained their Jesus stories by supernatural means, do they? Why do you think that?

Afaik, the 4 canonical gospels were eventually written down from earlier preaching “pericopes”, i.e. short preached stories designed to illustrate to the listeners (the congregation) some important principle of the faith. The preacher would have a range of stories for different common situations (helping others, battling against an enemy, how to treat your wife and your cattle etc etc), and he preaches each illustrative story as a way of illustrating what the faithful must do in various situations.

And then at some later date, these preached pericopes were written down, and some were collected into groups covering similar themes. No doubt many were rejected as bad practice etc. And finally the groups of similar stories were compiled into gospels.

But the origin of each pericope, where they concerned the examples set by the messiah, was clearly the Old Testament. Preachers such as Paul and the author of g-Mark, simply looked in the books of the OT until they found various passages which could be set within the example of a messiah who did all the righteous things preached in the various pericopes.

As far as the listeners were concerned, eg people hearing Paul preaching these stories (whatever he preached), they must have believed that Paul knew the truth of his messiah stories as a result of Paul being specially chosen by God as one who was given the gift of understanding Gods true message hidden for many centuries as a great secret in the words of the OT. Because iirc, Paul’s letters actually tell us that Paul claimed to have been given this gift of revelation by God, whereby Paul discovers from the OT the true secret of God’s messiah meaning.

So anyone listening to Paul speaking about that in the 1st century, probably did believe that Paul was a special conduit of God’s revealed truth. But I don’t see why those listeners would need to think that Paul or any of the later gospel preachers would be any more possessed of supernatural powers than that.

And afaik, all devout Jews at that date believed that they themselves had all sorts of special contacts from God and the spirit world. So Paul’s abilities would probably not be seen as so completely exceptional. Rather, what they probably thought about Paul was that he was simply someone so devout and righteous that God had chosen him to reveal the true secrets of the OT messiah prophecy which had dominated all their thoughts and beliefs for generations.




Despite the above I don't think the Gospels can be completely written off as some sort of evidence for an HJ, but I'm not sure, I'm just open to the idea. The Gospels, IMO, are more important as clues to the origin of Christianity than as a source of information about a hypothetical HJ. But even here the clues are obscure. It doesn't seem possible to pin down where they were written, who they were written by and whether Hellenistic Jews had anything to do with their creation.



Well as I keep saying - the gospels themselves cannot contain evidence of Jesus, simply because the authors did not have any evidence of Jesus. The only evidence they had was of people telling them stories of earlier belief in Jesus. So the only evidence available from the gospels is evidence of various beliefs.

So sure, the gospels can be seen more as a possible source of, as you say, “clues to the origin of Christianity than as a source of information about a hypothetical HJ“. Ie, not themselves actually proving the evidence of Jesus (because the writer had no evidence about him), but instead a conduit of reporting that earlier people once had the evidence … though none of them ever really tell us what that evidence is, because the stories are not really presented in any evidential way.

For me the elephant in the room here, is simply that gospel writing like that is obviously and undeniably unreliable in the extreme, to say the very least. And for that simple reason alone we should rule it out and request something much better.

If there is nothing better, then tough. But that cannot be an excuse for using writing so obviously flawed as the gospels as if it were reliable evidence of things that it’s own authors never knew.



As to your dismissal of Paul:
I don't know. I remain open to every Paul theory I've ever seen. I just don't know how you can prove any of them impossible at this late date.


Well I think the letters of Paul are in a rather different category than the hearsay of the gospels. Which is why I have almost always distinguished between rejecting the gospels out of hand, but not quite entirely rejecting Paul’s letters on that same basis. The main difference being that the letters are at least not openly admitted as hearsay.

On the other hand, Paul clearly never knew Jesus, and he himself did not and could not tell us anything about him. Again, Paul only ever tells us about his own beliefs in Jesus. But he repeatedly makes clear that his beliefs all come to him from what he understood to be God’s revealed secret in the OT. Iirc, Paul actually describes that saying such things as “he (God) was pleased to reveal in me…” and then he proceeds to give his opinion, ie his religious belief, on what he thinks the OT reveals to him as that true “secret” from God about the long awaited certainty of God’s messiah.

Even then we should ask “who actually wrote Paul’s letters anyway?”. Because if 6 or 7 of 13 letters are now generally agreed to be from other authors and not from “Paul”, then where does that leave the credibility of the remaining 6 or 7 that are claimed to be from “Paul”? And on what basis did anyone decide that these authentic 6 or 7 were indeed written by anyone named “Paul”?

But overall Paul’s letters are of no more value that the hearsay of the gospels. Because Paul himself, by his own admission, never knew Jesus in any way at all, except as he repeatedly tells us, through his own belief that God had chosen to “reveal in him” the great secret of the messiah contained in the divine ancient words of the Old testament.

So whatever else Paul might be talking about, where he talks about his belief in Jesus, he is very clearly talking entirely and completely about his religious belief drawn from the OT and from what he believed were his communications from heaven … if anyone thinks that is Paul giving evidence of a living human Jesus (who Paul never knew), then there is something very seriously wrong with their ability to treat this objectively … or perhaps, there is a good deal of “confirmation bias” going on when people look in the gospels and Paul’s letters and find actual evidence of a human Jesus.
 
Belz

Oridnarily, I'd be happy to pass along your objection to Ian's "Because you cannot have evidence of something which never happened." Namely,

That's where you go wrong.

Can someone point this out to him, since I'm on ignore ? Quoting me won't help. I'm sure he doesn't read anything with my name on it.
But, it wouldn't do any good. He'd just say my report of what you said was hearsay.
 
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Do you distinguish between using any historic text as a source for historical "analysis" (i.e. investigation?; yes, investigation if you like) vs. using a text as reliable historical record? Really? And what about this: “and rejecting anonymous hearsay of that sort as reliable and/or credible in any measure at all.”?

If you accept that a text that is not a reliable account of facts can be a font of information for the historical (critical) analysis we would advance a lot in this debate which seems to me absolutely run aground.



I'm not sure what your words are actually asking above. And I think you may be placing too much emphasis on a distinction that you yourself have produced when you talk about "using any historic text as a source for historical "analysis" vs. using a text as reliable historical record?" ... but, whilst it's obvious that there is nothing to stop bible scholars relying upon texts that are inherently highly unreliable, such as the biblical writing, that does not make that sound practice to attempt to find individual elements that could possibly be true in writing which is so monumentally untrustworthy as that.

If the bible is the best source that you have, then frankly your position is doomed from the start.

If you rely on the bible then you are relying on a work that is now known to be filled with completely untrue fiction in almost every relevant statement it makes about Jesus, where it’s stories about Jesus are known to have been taken from the OT, and where the authors who wrote those stories did not themselves actually know any evidence about Jesus at all, but where they were instead merely presenting hearsay reminiscence of earlier stories told by unknown people as yet more hearsay which said that it was believed that Jesus once had disciples who were with him when all these impossible things happened.

That is not evidence of Jesus.

That is evidence of religious stories told by a chain of hearsay authors none of whom themselves had any evidence of Jesus, but where they believed that other people had once seen miracles.

If Jesus and the subsequent church of Christianity had not become such an important subject, then I doubt if anyone (and certainly not any real objective academics) would have ever considered trying to use such deeply flawed religious writing as evidence of things that it’s own authors clearly knew nothing about.

But the fact that bible scholars and theologians do feel constrained to make a living from this subject, and thereby support peoples religious beliefs, by attempting to claim that reliable information can be obtained from such completely unreliable sources, should not mean that we here have to follow their example of accepting such manifestly unreliable religious writing as evidence of anything other than peoples 1st century religious beliefs in the supernatural.
 
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A lot of the writing about early Christianity seems to assume what I think of as the standard secular Jesus narrative about the origin of Christianity:

1. Early first century Jewish sect exists that the HJ plays a significant role in
2. Paul changes the message of the Jewish sect into something more universal and spreads it to the Gentiles essentially founding Christianity as we know it.

The problem I see with this scenario is that there is no information about how this actually happened. People just assume that Paul, in some magic way, was able to convince a bunch of people who followed some unidentified possibly pagan religion to drop their religious views and hop on the Christianity bandwagon. There is no explanation of where these folks who spoke Greek and who had an obsessive knowledge of the OT that wrote the Gospels came from.

I hadn't thought much about the fact that my ideas about the founding of Christianity being wrapped up with an existing religious group are not mentioned by most writers on early Christian history. They seem to assume that certain NT derived facts are true about the origin of Christianity but they don't seem to be interested in looking at what the underlying truth of the origin of Christianity might be. Or maybe it's my problem and I just don't get what they think is so obvious that they can just assume it to be true.



I think it's a mistake to place much reliance on our ability to guess how and why (or even when) what we now think of as Christianity based on belief in Jesus, actually became a dominant, or even widespread, belief with the greater number of people in that region following it as their faith.

Firstly, the Jesus-messiah belief is only a few microns from the long existing OT beliefs anyway. So it's only a marginal change, if indeed any kind of change at all, anyway. If anything, what Paul described was only the "true revelation" of what God had ordained in the OT as his hidden secret of what the OT prophecies really meant about the messiah to come.

So it does not seem to me that Paul was asking people to believe anything very different than they had already believed for centuries.

Also, by that date, i.e. early 1st century, it seems highly likely that Jewish religious belief, which was totally consumed by their OT belief in the coming of God's saying messiah, had been in a state of flux since at least the earliest writing of the Dead Sea Scrolls circa.170BC. Where by that date (170BC) the Jewish Essenes had come to believe that the OT was really prophesying a messiah who would be an apocalyptic priestly messenger of God rather than a military ruler similar to the legendary (but apparently non-existent) King David.

And that itself appears to have been influenced by, and becoming mixed up with, all sorts of other religious ideas brought into the region by a widespread acceptance of Greek traditions as something the Jewish people looked up to (eg in accepting Greek language), as well as influences from Persia and Rome, inc. their religious gods and religious beliefs.

So this appears to have been a period of considerable change and re-evaluation of the religious OT beliefs for the indigenous Jewish people of the region. And you can read about that in books on the Dead Sea Scrolls for example, where the Scrolls are said to show a clear change towards much greater variation in what was being preached amongst various Jewish sects, and where influences such as the mystery religions were coming into play.

So I don’t think there really needs to be any great mystery there as to how Pauline-type Christianity took hold. Because, first of all it came at a time when all these religious OT beliefs were in a state of flux, and where Paul’s belief that God had "chosen to reveal in me” the true meaning of his (God’s) message hidden so long as a secret encoded in the prophecies of the OT, was in any case only marginally different from what Jews in that region had been certain of as their OT messianic beliefs for centuries.

Paul’s message was that if you followed his belief in Jesus as a messiah who had died for the sins of Man, then you would always be guaranteed an everlasting life of sublime wonder in heaven at the right hand of God. All you had to do was to solemnly follow the teaching of Paul and those others who Paul says came before him, but where according to Paul’s own letters, iirc, Paul says that these earlier other believers were not at all clear about which messiah they should actually worship or who this messiah had ever been or was ever to be (past or present).

What Paul did was to convince them that he had been chosen by God as one to whom God had now revealed the true messiah message hidden in the OT, where Paul said that the revelation was that the words of the OT really meant that the messiah had already been amongst them all in the past, and had passed largely rejected, even unto symbolic death, amongst his own people who doubted him. But where, God had now revealed to Paul that this messiah, who Paul called Yehoshua was indeed THE messiah who they must all follow if ever they wanted to receive Gods everlasting salvation in heaven, and particularly now since as Paul had just discovered, the day of Gods final judgement was imminent at any moment.

And as far as the name Yehosua is concerned, as I have said before - iirc, one book of the OT actually does say that none other than Moses himself (who also apparently may never have existed!) was supposed to have prophesied that his great successor who lead the Jewish people to Gods great salvation, would be named …. Yehoshua! Plus of course, that word Yehoshua is apparently not a normal name anyway. Instead it is a theophoric word or utterance as a verbal cry to the salvation of God … meaning something like “we appeal to the saving nature of Yahweh”.
 
David, the entire problem here is that you were simply wrong to say that all of history would collapse if we ruled things out of consideration on the basis that all we had as “evidence” was anonymous hearsay with no other supporting evidence at all.

That is wrong. That would not rule out all of ancient history. It would not rule out events such as your example of Thermopylae.

And the reason is (as I already explained several times above), because contrary to what you were saying, it is in fact not the case that genuine academic university historians claim that such events really happened on the basis of anonymous hearsay evidence alone … far less do they claim such things on the basis of the sort of anonymous hearsay which we have for Jesus, where it is actually a chain of multiple anonymous hearsay sources known only from the writing of much later religiously devoted self-serving copyists, claiming constant untrue fiction on every page, and where those fictional beliefs are known to have been copied from what the authors thought was divine religious prophecy in their ancient religious books from centuries before!

No sane academic, in any field, could possibly claim that we should believe anything on that sort of “evidence”. And I’m quite sure they do not make any such claims about Thermopylae either.

So it’s quite untrue for anyone to say that sort of ancient history would all collapse.

The problem with the Jesus case, perhaps uniquely in all of ancient history (except of course for other similar religious beliefs), is that it’s practitioners, who are bible-studies scholars, mostly in the devoutly Christian USA, such as Bart Ehrman and all his colleagues (such as Dominic Crossan) of whom he says "almost every properly trained scholar on the planet agrees", do say that such evidence is good enough not merely to say they think Jesus existed, but as I have pointed out here numerous times, they say it is a matter of undisputed “certainty”.

And this is a case where the claimed “evidence” of Jesus comes entirely from the biblical writing (there is no independent external non-Christian writing which does not, as far as anyone can honestly tell, rely on what had already been written in gospels), and where the gospel writing is -

1. Entirely anonymous, from writers who never knew Jesus at all
2. Where those gospel writers were recounting stories from yet earlier anonymous people who also did not know Jesus,
3. Where the earlier anonymous people were said to have believed that even earlier people had been disciples of Jesus and knew what he had said and done.
4. But where none of those people ever confirmed a single thing that was said in any gospel
5. Where not one person ever wrote anything about Jesus during his lifetime
6. Where even for a century or more after Jesus was thought to have died (ie c.30AD) almost no historians even mentioned his existence at all
7. Where the few such as Tacitus and Josephus who did mention anything about Jesus, only mentioned him in passing in a couple of very brief sentences.
8. Where those authors such as Tacitus and Josephus were not even born at the time and could not possibly have ever known what Jesus did, except through even more hearsay from unnamed unknown sources.
9. Where even that quite hopeless anonymous hearsay supposedly mentioned by Tacitus and Josephus etc., is only known in copies written 1000 years later by Christian religious copyists themselves.
10. Where the only primary source ever known, i.e. the biblical writing, is so hopelessly unreliable and non-credible that it claimed completely untrue fiction about Jesus on virtually every page.
11. Where all of the biblical writers, inc. Paul, repeatedly stressed that they had obtained their Jesus beliefs by interpreting what they believed to have been prophecy written centuries before in the OT.
12. Where authors like Randel Helms have written in detail with entire books showing exactly where, how and why those gospel authors took their Jesus stories from specific passages in the books of the OT.
13. Where even that anonymous gospel hearsay, and the letters attributed to Paul, all reporting impossible supernatural fiction, and all very clearly obtaining their messiah beliefs from what they thought was the divine certainty of their OT, even that is not known from any of the original writers, but again only known from self-interested Christian religious copyists writing from about the 4th-6th century onwards (i.e. for relatively complete forms with substantially readable detail).
14. Where all of that Christian copying, whether it’s copies of Josephus and Tacitus etc., or copies of earlier gospels etc., is known even to the most devout bible-scholars and theologians, to have suffered from frequent “interpolations”, i.e. alterations, additions and deletions of what was originally written, wherever the later copyists and their masters wished to change things according to their changing beliefs.


Hearsay sources like that, i.e. 1 to 14 above, are not only totally inadmissible in the case of Jesus, as they would be in any legal case, but they are most definitely not used in other areas of ancient history such as Thermopylae, to conclude on that sort of anonymous hearsay devotional writing alone, that any event like Thermopylae was actually a real fact, or even probably a real fact … that sort of utterly useless fatally flawed “evidence” is not remotely good enough to conclude anything at all about any claimed historical events or figures.

And just to repeat, in case you have lost the drift of this - that is why we, in this thread, most certainly should be using the same sort of evidential considerations that have been universally established in law, and rejecting anonymous hearsay of that sort as reliable and/or credible in any measure at all. It needs something vastly better than that before you can even begin to describe it as “evidence” … and that means “evidence” of what is actually being claimed, not “evidence” of something else entirely (such as merely being evidence that people often wrote about quite absurd superstitious religious beliefs).

This is a déjà vu!



You say it’s all déjà vu? Meaning I have said all the above before? And you think I should keep changing what I say about any of this??

You really think a whacking great long list of problems like that can be ignored, such that you put aside everything that shows you how hopelessly unreliable that 1st century ignorant superstitious religious writing really is, and you want instead to look in it for any sentence that might be at least not physically impossible or else clearly taken from the OT?

And even to do that you have to rely entirely upon hearsay writing from gospel authors who knew zero of any evidence themselves about Jesus? And you want to call that valid “evidence” of what not a single one of those authors could possibly have known to be any evidence at all? And you really think that is a sensible and credible way to decide history?
 
A lot of the writing about early Christianity seems to assume what I think of as the standard secular Jesus narrative about the origin of Christianity:

1. Early first century Jewish sect exists that the HJ plays a significant role in
2. Paul changes the message of the Jewish sect into something more universal and spreads it to the Gentiles essentially founding Christianity as we know it.

The problem I see with this scenario is that there is no information about how this actually happened. People just assume that Paul, in some magic way, was able to convince a bunch of people who followed some unidentified possibly pagan religion to drop their religious views and hop on the Christianity bandwagon. There is no explanation of where these folks who spoke Greek and who had an obsessive knowledge of the OT that wrote the Gospels came from.

I hadn't thought much about the fact that my ideas about the founding of Christianity being wrapped up with an existing religious group are not mentioned by most writers on early Christian history. They seem to assume that certain NT derived facts are true about the origin of Christianity but they don't seem to be interested in looking at what the underlying truth of the origin of Christianity might be. Or maybe it's my problem and I just don't get what they think is so obvious that they can just assume it to be true.

Some authors have investigated this line of a Judeo-Christianity buried by Paulinism (not necessarily Paul of Tarsus in person). I have read Antonio Piñero, José Montserrat Jose Bermejo and Gonzalo Puente Ojea, but as you can guess from their names, they write in Spanish. They often cite other authors as S. G. F. Brandon (I have not read him), Maurice Sachot or Marvin Harris. If I remember correctly, Ehrman has something on this line.

Limiting myself to what I've read, these authors do not think Paul suddenly convinced all the Christians. In fact, it seems that the Pauline epistles were unknown until the end of the first century (Clement of Rome) and practically until Marcion made them fashionable in the early second century. I'm talking about the more or less final version. The victory was post-Pauline and was due to two main causes. First, the fall of Jerusalem and the subsequent Diaspora, because they separated Christianity from its Jewish base. Second, the weakness (economic!) of the fraction of Jerusalem (if we believe the Pauline epistles), which was dependent on the Christian centres scattered throughout Asia Minor. Once the Judeo-Christians eradicated from Jerusalem in 70 EC they had no opportunity to impose their point of view.

These theories are based on the contradictions between Gospel passages that seem to refer to a Christian ideology that the texts try to hide or disguise but emerges in some more or less deformed points. In my opinion, although the indication is interesting, I think the manipulation of the texts by the Christians in the first and second Centuries makes it difficult to have a clear idea of the ideology of this Judeo-Christian trend and is even harder to try to dump it on the historical Jesus in person.
 
Limiting myself to what I've read, these authors do not think Paul suddenly convinced all the Christians. In fact, it seems that the Pauline epistles were unknown until the end of the first century (Clement of Rome) and practically until Marcion made them fashionable in the early second century.

There is no actual letter written by the so-called Cement of Rome. It is an anonymous letter attributed to be the supposed Clement.

At least 5 apologetic writers admitted Clement of Rome was not bishop of Rome when the anonymous letter was believed to have been composed c 95 CE.

Tertullian, Optatus, Rufinus, the Chronography of 354, and Augustine of Hippo
claimed Clement was bishop around c 67-69

In effect, the supposed Clement letter is in a far worse condition than the Pauline Epistle.

The anonymous letter was falsely attributed to Clement.

In any event, the anonymous letter does state anywhere that Paul wrote letters to Churches before c 70 CE.
 
You say it’s all déjà vu? Meaning I have said all the above before? And you think I should keep changing what I say about any of this??

I'm not sure what your words are actually asking above. And I think you may be placing too much emphasis on a distinction that you yourself have produced when you talk about "using any historic text as a source for historical "analysis" vs. using a text as reliable historical record?" ... but, whilst it's obvious that there is nothing to stop bible scholars relying upon texts that are inherently highly unreliable, such as the biblical writing, that does not make that sound practice to attempt to find individual elements that could possibly be true in writing which is so monumentally untrustworthy as that.

Yes; this is a déjà vu or a vicious circle, if you like, since you repeat arguments to prove that the Gospels are not reliable historical sources and there is not material evidence of the Jesus existence. We know that and this is not the problem. The problem is you don't accept that the Gospels can be critically analyzed in search of some indications of facts. As, for example, the existence of Jesus.

I have provided some historical examples where the critical analysis of a not reliable source achieved factual information (Thermopylae battle, Pharaonic steles and so on). I have discussed with you the application of the criterion of difficulty to problem of existence of Jesus. You don't accept these arguments and you maintain a restrictive and erroneous (in my opinion) interpretation of historical method.

Sincerely, I don't know what more can we say without converting this discussion in the eternal return.

POST SCRIPTUM: You are obsessed with biblical exegetes. Relax you, please. You are discussing with me, not with Meier, Evans, Dunn, Crossan et alia. And I swear my belief in the probability of Jesus’ existence doesn’t reduce an iota my atheistic convictions or the refusal to the methods of biblical exegesis.
 
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...As for the Herculaneum library, the fact that it's an entire library from the first century is intriguing in itself. Granted, much has been lost but the techniques developed by the Brigham Young Uni seem our best bet for a unique leper's squint into the first century. I'll dredge out the linked articles on the subject I found while researching that Sator Square found in Pompeya.

Still dredging, davefoc.
I didn't bookmark the references as I was pursuing the white rabbit of the Sator Squares. :blush:

Anyway, Googling DID give me this update on a failed attempt to decopher the scrolls:
According to Seales, UK is looking at possibly rescanning the scrolls, in partnership with a group in Belgium that built the X-ray scanner used last year. A meeting with the group had to be canceled in April when the eruption of a volcano in Iceland interrupted flights to Europe.
I found the irony of the hilited bit amusing.

And this perhaps sums up best my own interest, from a most interesting article about the impressive work being done by CPART
"Although there is evidence of Christianity in the region around Herculaneum, scholars believe no specific references to Christianity will be found in these early writings. However, according to BYU classics professor John F. Hall, '75, the scrolls—written between 180 B.C. and A.D. 70—do enrich our understanding of the ancient world around the time of Christ.

"The scrolls demonstrate to us the thinking, the educational directions, and the beliefs of the people of those times. And it's in the context of those beliefs that Christianity grew and developed," he says."
http://magazine.byu.edu/?act=view&a=43



I also stumbled upon yet another white rabbit today: the charming underground basilica in Rome, near the Porta Maggiore
http://archeoroma.beniculturali.it/en/archaeological-site/underground-basilica-near-porta-maggiore
https://www.rosicrucian.org/publications/digest/digest1_2009/05_web/08_spencer/08_spencer.pdf

From Yale's magnificent open courses, a description of the basilica:
So you see the great gate here, and you see the Tomb of the Baker, and that gives you a sense of the location of the basilica, the Underground Basilica of 50 A.D. If you look at that basilica, you see the plan is exactly like the basilica in a civic context--the basilica at Pompeii, for example--with a central nave and two side aisles, divided by that nave, that central space, through architectural members, in this case through piers rather than columns; and then at the end, to give some emphasis to one short side of the space, an apse, that you also see there. This underground basilica was used for religious worship. So we see once again what I've referred to as the interchangeability of form: the idea of creating a certain building plan for a civic center, the law court or basilica, and then using it in other ways. We already saw the basilican plan being used in house design at Herculaneum as a banqueting hall, and here we see it as a religious, a place for religious worship underground: a basilican form being used for religious worship underground.

The Underground Basilica is miraculously preserved. Why? Because it's underground and it didn't--it consequently was kept in very good shape over time. It's very difficult to get permission to go down and see it, but it is a marvel, as you can see from this image here. How did they create this Underground Basilica? How did they make this building underground? Well they cut trenches in the tufa rock, in the tufa rock; remember we've talked about how ubiquitous tufa rock was in Rome, both on the hillsides, like the Palatine, and elsewhere. So they cut trenches in the tufa rock, and then they poured concrete into those trenches to create the walls and also the barrel vault that you see so well here. And once that concrete had dried, they cut it out in such a way as to create the piers that you also see very well in this structure. So we're looking at that central space; we're looking at the piers, the arches above those piers, and then that's supporting a barrel vaulting ceiling, as well as a semi-vault in the apse of this structure.

Another view gives you a sense of the relationship of the central space to the aisles. It's a fairly small structure but nonetheless it is quite light and airy, as I think you can see here, as we look from the central nave toward one of the side aisles. You can see the piers and the arches above those piers, and you can also see the way in which the walls are decorated. They're made out of concrete but they're stuccoed over and divided into a series of panels that are decorated with pretty strong resemblance to Third Style, and that resemblance becomes even clearer as we look up to the vault above. This is how we surmise that this building was put up to the Neo-Pythagorean cult, because of the figures that we see floating in the central panels here. Those who have a good understanding of the Neo-Pythagorean cult have suggested that these track extremely well the beliefs of this particular cult.

http://oyc.yale.edu/history-art/hsar-252/lecture-11#transcript

I post this because it gives an idea of the money spent on alternative religions in 1st century Rome.
Acts tells us Paul lived openly in Rome in his own home and this makes me wonder just how persecuted the early Christians were.
 
Yes; this is a déjà vu or a vicious circle, if you like, since you repeat arguments to prove that the Gospels are not reliable historical sources and there is not material evidence of the Jesus existence. We know that and this is not the problem. The problem is you don't accept that the Gospels can be critically analyzed in search of some indications of facts. As, for example, the existence of Jesus.

I have provided some historical examples where the critical analysis of a not reliable source achieved factual information (Thermopylae battle, Pharaonic steles and so on). I have discussed with you the application of the criterion of difficulty to problem of existence of Jesus. You don't accept these arguments and you maintain a restrictive and erroneous (in my opinion) interpretation of historical method.

Sincerely, I don't know what more can we say without converting this discussion in the eternal return.

POST SCRIPTUM: You are obsessed with biblical exegetes. Relax you, please. You are discussing with me, not with Meier, Evans, Dunn, Crossan et alia. And I swear my belief in the probability of Jesus’ existence doesn’t reduce an iota my atheistic convictions or the refusal to the methods of biblical exegesis.



I don't recall anything mentioned about anything called "Pharaonic steles", but what you tried to argue about Thermopylae was clearly wrong. Thermopylae is NOT believed true on evidence no better than the biblical evidence of Jesus.


The problem is you don't accept that the Gospels can be critically analyzed in search of some indications of facts. As, for example, the existence of Jesus..



Indeed I don't accept that is a valid process in the specific case of the religious devotional writing of the gospels. For all the dozens of reasons I have listed in great detail before.

Those reasons (even just a few of them) render that gospel writing highly unreliable in the extreme. If you use a source like that, which is proven to be filled with constant untrue claims about it's central belief, from authors who themselves knew no evidence at all of Jesus, and where their unnamed sources were not even people why knew any evidence of Jesus either, and where it is known that their stories of Jesus were being taken from what had already been written centuries before in the OT, then NO!...No, that most certainly is not a source upon which you should ever rely for any reliable mention of Jesus whatsoever.

It is utterly fallacious to say you can simply disregard everything which shows that a gospel source like that is so massively unreliable, and claim instead that if you erase all of it's obvious untruths etc., then when you are left with a few highly inconsequential sentences that might be at least physically possible, such as sentence saying a person named Jesus existed as a 1st century preacher, that somehow should then be considered to be true valid evidence of the biblical Jesus coming from that utterly unreliable dishonest source.

That is not a credible or valid way to analyse any source of information.

Yes, of course we all know that in a massively unreliable book of fiction and superstition like that, it is just about possible that there might be some useful grain of truth. That's always trivially true about absolutely anything, because absolutely anything might be true. But with writing so manifestly untrustworthy as the gospels, that practice of attempting to discard everything which proves beyond all doubt that the writing was riddled with untrue religious beliefs presented as facts on every single page, and where moreover the actual writers were never witnesses to a single claim they made, and where they did not even known anyone who was single witness to any claim they ever made, then NO ... No, that most definitely is not a reliable source which should be used to draw any conclusion whatsoever from anything it says at all.

What you are arguing for is, I assume (since this is the only element which could be considered just about credible in any educated discussion), is that despite all the obvious religious fiction and despite the fact that the gospel writers could never have known any evidence of Jesus anyway, you think it might be possible to find things said about Jesus in the gospels which could possibly be true, correct?

But the problem with that (which should be obvious to you) is that you have absolutely no way of knowing if any such gospel sentence might have been true, other by you merely saying “well it’s not physically impossible!”. But a statement or conclusion like that is 100% worthless unless you can produce external sources which provide independent evidence to show that any such gospel sentence may indeed have been true.

However, in this case you cannot do that. Because there is no known independent corroboration of anything at all said about Jesus in any of the gospels. None at all.

So just because we look in the gospels, agree that almost all of it has to be crossed out as obvious untrue fictional religious superstition, and thereby leaving a few sentences saying such inconsequential things as (say) “Jesus went to Jerusalem and there he met Peter”, that might not be a physical impossibility that a preacher was named Jesus and that he once met someone named peter in Jerusalem, that could have happened, it’s not demonstrably impossible, but the problem is - how do you know that did actually happen?…what is your evidence that it did ever happen? … don’t tell me that your evidence is the fact that the massively unreliable biblical writer said that it had happened (though he only “knew” it because someone else thought it had happened, though none of them saw it at all)! … if anything like that was ever done by Jesus, then you absolutely MUST have independent non-gospel verification of the event actually happening …

… but you have precisely ZERO of any such external independent support for any such mention of anything about Jesus in the gospels!

IOW - if the proven fictitious untrue writing in the gospels (and Paul’s letters) is all that you can offer as “evidence” showing that Jesus was real person, then you actually have no valid reliable or credible evidence of his existence at all. Because all of that religious writing is totally discredited as reliable fact, by all the numerous features already listed (I’ll list them again below, more deja vu for you!) and for which you have absolutely ZERO external independent support or confirmation of even one single word that any of those bible writers ever said about a human messianic preacher named “Yehoshua”.



1. Entirely anonymous, from hearsay writers who never knew Jesus at all, and who therefore could not themselves have any evidence of their own to provide about Jesus
2. Where those gospel writers were recounting stories from yet earlier anonymous hearsay people who also did not know Jesus, and who therefore also could not possibly be giving their own evidence of knowing anything about Jesus.
3. Where the earlier anonymous people were said to have believed that even earlier people had been disciples of Jesus and knew what he had once said and done.
4. But where none of those people ever confirmed a single thing that was said in any gospel
5. Where not one person ever wrote anything about Jesus during his lifetime
6. Where even for a century or more after Jesus was thought to have died (i.e. c.30AD) almost no historians even mentioned his existence at all
7. Where the few such as Tacitus and Josephus who did mention anything about Jesus, only mentioned him in passing in a couple of very brief sentences.
8. Where those authors such as Tacitus and Josephus were not even born at the time and could not possibly have ever known what Jesus did, except through even more hearsay from unnamed unknown sources.
9. Where even that quite hopeless anonymous hearsay supposedly mentioned by Tacitus and Josephus etc., is only known from copies written 1000 years later by Christian religious copyists themselves.
10. Where the only primary source ever known, i.e. the biblical writing, is so hopelessly unreliable and non-credible that it claimed completely untrue fiction about Jesus on virtually every page.
11. Where all of the biblical writers, inc. Paul, repeatedly stressed that they had obtained their Jesus beliefs by interpreting what they believed to have been prophecy written centuries before in the OT.
12. Where authors like Randel Helms have written in detail with entire books showing exactly where, how and why those gospel authors took their Jesus stories from specific passages in the books of the OT.
13. Where even that anonymous gospel hearsay, and the letters attributed to Paul, all reporting impossible supernatural fiction, and all very clearly obtaining their messiah beliefs from what they thought was the divine certainty of their OT, even that is not known from any of the original writers, but again only known from the very obvious religious devotional bias of Christian copyists writing from about the 4th-6th century onwards (i.e. for relatively complete forms with substantially readable detail).
14. Where all of that Christian copying, whether it’s copies of Josephus and Tacitus etc., or copies of earlier gospels etc., is known even to the most devout bible-scholars and theologians, to have suffered from frequent “interpolations”, i.e. alterations, additions and deletions of what was originally written, wherever the later religious copyists and their masters wished to change things according to their changing religious beliefs.
 
I don't recall anything mentioned about anything called "Pharaonic steles", but what you tried to argue about Thermopylae was clearly wrong. Thermopylae is NOT believed true on evidence no better than the biblical evidence of Jesus.






Indeed I don't accept that is a valid process in the specific case of the religious devotional writing of the gospels. For all the dozens of reasons I have listed in great detail before.

Those reasons (even just a few of them) render that gospel writing highly unreliable in the extreme. If you use a source like that, which is proven to be filled with constant untrue claims about it's central belief, from authors who themselves knew no evidence at all of Jesus, and where their unnamed sources were not even people why knew any evidence of Jesus either, and where it is known that their stories of Jesus were being taken from what had already been written centuries before in the OT, then NO!...No, that most certainly is not a source upon which you should ever rely for any reliable mention of Jesus whatsoever.

It is utterly fallacious to say you can simply disregard everything which shows that a gospel source like that is so massively unreliable, and claim instead that if you erase all of it's obvious untruths etc., then when you are left with a few highly inconsequential sentences that might be at least physically possible, such as sentence saying a person named Jesus existed as a 1st century preacher, that somehow should then be considered to be true valid evidence of the biblical Jesus coming from that utterly unreliable dishonest source.

That is not a credible or valid way to analyse any source of information.

Yes, of course we all know that in a massively unreliable book of fiction and superstition like that, it is just about possible that there might be some useful grain of truth. That's always trivially true about absolutely anything, because absolutely anything might be true. But with writing so manifestly untrustworthy as the gospels, that practice of attempting to discard everything which proves beyond all doubt that the writing was riddled with untrue religious beliefs presented as facts on every single page, and where moreover the actual writers were never witnesses to a single claim they made, and where they did not even known anyone who was single witness to any claim they ever made, then NO ... No, that most definitely is not a reliable source which should be used to draw any conclusion whatsoever from anything it says at all.

What you are arguing for is, I assume (since this is the only element which could be considered just about credible in any educated discussion), is that despite all the obvious religious fiction and despite the fact that the gospel writers could never have known any evidence of Jesus anyway, you think it might be possible to find things said about Jesus in the gospels which could possibly be true, correct?

But the problem with that (which should be obvious to you) is that you have absolutely no way of knowing if any such gospel sentence might have been true, other by you merely saying “well it’s not physically impossible!”. But a statement or conclusion like that is 100% worthless unless you can produce external sources which provide independent evidence to show that any such gospel sentence may indeed have been true.

However, in this case you cannot do that. Because there is no known independent corroboration of anything at all said about Jesus in any of the gospels. None at all.

So just because we look in the gospels, agree that almost all of it has to be crossed out as obvious untrue fictional religious superstition, and thereby leaving a few sentences saying such inconsequential things as (say) “Jesus went to Jerusalem and there he met Peter”, that might not be a physical impossibility that a preacher was named Jesus and that he once met someone named peter in Jerusalem, that could have happened, it’s not demonstrably impossible, but the problem is - how do you know that did actually happen?…what is your evidence that it did ever happen? … don’t tell me that your evidence is the fact that the massively unreliable biblical writer said that it had happened (though he only “knew” it because someone else thought it had happened, though none of them saw it at all)! … if anything like that was ever done by Jesus, then you absolutely MUST have independent non-gospel verification of the event actually happening …

… but you have precisely ZERO of any such external independent support for any such mention of anything about Jesus in the gospels!

IOW - if the proven fictitious untrue writing in the gospels (and Paul’s letters) is all that you can offer as “evidence” showing that Jesus was real person, then you actually have no valid reliable or credible evidence of his existence at all. Because all of that religious writing is totally discredited as reliable fact, by all the numerous features already listed (I’ll list them again below, more deja vu for you!) and for which you have absolutely ZERO external independent support or confirmation of even one single word that any of those bible writers ever said about a human messianic preacher named “Yehoshua”.



1. Entirely anonymous, from hearsay writers who never knew Jesus at all, and who therefore could not themselves have any evidence of their own to provide about Jesus
2. Where those gospel writers were recounting stories from yet earlier anonymous hearsay people who also did not know Jesus, and who therefore also could not possibly be giving their own evidence of knowing anything about Jesus.
3. Where the earlier anonymous people were said to have believed that even earlier people had been disciples of Jesus and knew what he had once said and done.
4. But where none of those people ever confirmed a single thing that was said in any gospel
5. Where not one person ever wrote anything about Jesus during his lifetime
6. Where even for a century or more after Jesus was thought to have died (i.e. c.30AD) almost no historians even mentioned his existence at all
7. Where the few such as Tacitus and Josephus who did mention anything about Jesus, only mentioned him in passing in a couple of very brief sentences.
8. Where those authors such as Tacitus and Josephus were not even born at the time and could not possibly have ever known what Jesus did, except through even more hearsay from unnamed unknown sources.
9. Where even that quite hopeless anonymous hearsay supposedly mentioned by Tacitus and Josephus etc., is only known from copies written 1000 years later by Christian religious copyists themselves.
10. Where the only primary source ever known, i.e. the biblical writing, is so hopelessly unreliable and non-credible that it claimed completely untrue fiction about Jesus on virtually every page.
11. Where all of the biblical writers, inc. Paul, repeatedly stressed that they had obtained their Jesus beliefs by interpreting what they believed to have been prophecy written centuries before in the OT.
12. Where authors like Randel Helms have written in detail with entire books showing exactly where, how and why those gospel authors took their Jesus stories from specific passages in the books of the OT.
13. Where even that anonymous gospel hearsay, and the letters attributed to Paul, all reporting impossible supernatural fiction, and all very clearly obtaining their messiah beliefs from what they thought was the divine certainty of their OT, even that is not known from any of the original writers, but again only known from the very obvious religious devotional bias of Christian copyists writing from about the 4th-6th century onwards (i.e. for relatively complete forms with substantially readable detail).
14. Where all of that Christian copying, whether it’s copies of Josephus and Tacitus etc., or copies of earlier gospels etc., is known even to the most devout bible-scholars and theologians, to have suffered from frequent “interpolations”, i.e. alterations, additions and deletions of what was originally written, wherever the later religious copyists and their masters wished to change things according to their changing religious beliefs.

Such a laughably ignorant and arrogant argument.

You're funny.

:D
 
... 11. Where all of the biblical writers, inc. Paul, repeatedly stressed that they had obtained their Jesus beliefs by interpreting what they believed to have been prophecy written centuries before in the OT.
12. Where authors like Randel Helms have written in detail with entire books showing exactly where, how and why those gospel authors took their Jesus stories from specific passages in the books of the OT.
It is equally probable that if an authentic event in the life of Jesus (if such there be) is reported, eg the execution by crucifixion, it is interpreted in the light of these prophecies. There is no prophecy in the Jewish scriptures that a messiah will be executed by in this way. Psalm 22, often invoked by Christians (and allegedly by Jesus too, as his last words reported by Mark are the first verse of that psalm) is not a prophecy, and has nothing to do with crucifixion. It is unlikely that the evangelists would have invented a crucifixion after perusing Ps 22, but very probable that they would seek something in the Scriptures that might make sense of the event.

Other items of Jesus' "biography" are indeed concocted from OT passages. One of the purposes of higher criticism is to determine if these can be identified correctly.
 
It is equally probable that if an authentic event in the life of Jesus (if such there be) is reported, eg the execution by crucifixion, it is interpreted in the light of these prophecies. There is no prophecy in the Jewish scriptures that a messiah will be executed by in this way. Psalm 22, often invoked by Christians (and allegedly by Jesus too, as his last words reported by Mark are the first verse of that psalm) is not a prophecy, and has nothing to do with crucifixion. It is unlikely that the evangelists would have invented a crucifixion after perusing Ps 22, but very probable that they would seek something in the Scriptures that might make sense of the event.

Evangelists?? What Evangelists are you talking about? For the "millionth" time the Gospels are FORGERIES and NOT eyewitness accounts.

No-one knows who wrote them.

No-one has any evidence that Evangelists wrote them.

We all know that they are filled with historical problems, discrepancies, contradictions and events that could not have happened.

If you suppose that Evangelists were unlikely to have invented the crucifixion then those who invented the crucifixion may very well not be evangelists. It was some other unknown person/persons.

Please, desists from Chinese Whispers and Rumors.

Craig B said:
Other items of Jesus' "biography" are indeed concocted from OT passages. One of the purposes of higher criticism is to determine if these can be identified correctly.

What?? "They concocted his conception by a Ghost , his birth in Bethlehem, his miracles, his walking on the sea, his transfiguration, his resurrection on the third day, the commission after he resurrected, the eating of fish after he was raised from the dead and his ascension!!

But "they" did not concoct his crucifixion!!

What a concoction!!

Everything before and after the crucifixion was concocted!!

Please, please, please, tell us who would attempt to start a new religion with total concoction about a known Crucified Jewish Criminal?

Not even "Paul" was so stupid!!

Paul's Jesus was a product of visions--not a known Crucified Criminal.
 
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Evangelists?? What Evangelists are you talking about? For the "millionth" time the Gospels are FORGERIES and NOT eyewitness accounts.

No-one knows who wrote them.

No-one has any evidence that Evangelists wrote them.

We all know that they are filled with historical problems, discrepancies, contradictions and events that could not have happened.

Who would have thought it!
 
It is equally probable that if an authentic event in the life of Jesus (if such there be) is reported, eg the execution by crucifixion, it is interpreted in the light of these prophecies. There is no prophecy in the Jewish scriptures that a messiah will be executed by in this way. Psalm 22, often invoked by Christians (and allegedly by Jesus too, as his last words reported by Mark are the first verse of that psalm) is not a prophecy, and has nothing to do with crucifixion. It is unlikely that the evangelists would have invented a crucifixion after perusing Ps 22, but very probable that they would seek something in the Scriptures that might make sense of the event.

Other items of Jesus' "biography" are indeed concocted from OT passages. One of the purposes of higher criticism is to determine if these can be identified correctly.

There are passages in the Gospels that do not correspond with Old Testament passages. Others, like the case of the crucifixion, they fit so forcibly that show they are attempts to justify an event or an earlier tradition. Others are doubtful and others indeed seem invented to meet a supposed ancient prophecy.

Therefore, the reference to the Old Testament is not proof of anything unless we specify our comment.

What surprises me is that our friend IanS, who is so scrupulous in admitting certificate of authentic historian, cites here as authority an English teacher. Caramba, caramba.
 
There are passages in the Gospels that do not correspond with Old Testament passages. Others, like the case of the crucifixion, they fit so forcibly that show they are attempts to justify an event or an earlier tradition. Others are doubtful and others indeed seem invented to meet a supposed ancient prophecy.

Therefore, the reference to the Old Testament is not proof of anything unless we specify our comment.

What surprises me is that our friend IanS, who is so scrupulous in admitting certificate of authentic historian, cites here as authority an English teacher. Caramba, caramba.


Which English teacher are you thinking of?

And by the way, I think everyone in this subject would be on far safer ground if they were not relying on constant appeal to bible-scholars and theologians as objective independent experts on Jesus. I think we would probably be getting a far more objective and critical analysis if we did not appeal to people like Ehrman, Crossan and the thousands of others who Ehrman describes as "almost every properly trained scholar on the planet" who Ehrman says agrees with his view when he says Jesus was a "certainty".

If people in these threads truly wanted to know what the problems are with the views of “expert historians” like Bart Ehrman (he actually called himself a “historian”), then they would do far better to read why sceptical “English professors” and other non-bible academics say the claimed evidence of these bible-scholars is seriously flawed.

This is not just a matter of which authors any of us believe. It’s a matter of what is true and untrue in respect of the claimed evidence for the existence of a living human Jesus.

And the fact of the matter here, appears to be that the ONLY such claimed “evidence” is that which was written in a wholly unreliable and completely discredited bible …. Unreliable, discredited, and simply not credible as a source for all the 14 or so reasons I listed and repeated several times above! …

… you cannot objectively, honestly and credibly claim that it is reasonable to believe in a messiah figure named Jesus solely on the basis of what was written in gospels and letters by religious fanatics who themselves knew absolutely zero about Jesus, but where all of them swore on every page that impossible miracles were the basis of their story. These are accounts of religious faith written at a time of almost unimaginable ignorance and superstition. Those anonymous religious authors are not by any stretch of objective imagination reliable sources for anything they wrote about their belief in a messiah unknown to any of them, but who they believed true on the basis of being certain that their OT revealed Gods great hidden messianic secret.

If that is all the “evidence” you have for Jesus, then you have no credible evidence at all. And nobody in their right mind should ever conclude otherwise.

To be even remotely credible, the biblical writing requires some clear unambiguous external independent confirmation for anything that it mentions about Jesus. But in fact, there is no such external independent mention of Jesus by anyone. None at all. Completely zero.

And if people here believe in Jesus on the basis of that biblical writing (which is their only source), then they should realise that are really stating a “Faith” position. I.e., they are placing their faith in the religious faith which was expressed as the writing of the bible.

As I have said here so many times before - none of that is to say that Jesus could not have existed. He might have done. That is always possible.

But the problem is that the bible is by no stretch of any sane imagination a reliable or credible source of evidence for what it’s anonymous writers say about their fanatical religious messianic prophecy beliefs if a messiah that not a single one of them ever knew in any way at all. If you believe in Jesus on that biblical basis, then you are believing upon pure “faith” … the pure religious faith written as the gospels and Paul’s letters.
 
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