Excuse me, but I think that is you whho has 'craped' badly for I ask you a thing and you answer to another.
I ask you if you believe the battle of Thermopylae could pass the requirements for evidence in a court and you answer me that the existence of Jesus would not pass the requirements of evidence in a court. Ein?
I will try to focus the topic:
I chose the battle of Thermopylae randomly, as a typical example of an event in ancient history.
A competent judge would find the following 'evidences':
-A manuscript of the fifteenth century -IIRC- that refers to an event that took place in the fifth century bCE.
-The manuscript is anonymous.
-The manuscript purports to be a copy of another manuscript that is not in hands of the court.
-It would be written by one so called Herodotus.
-Is not proven who the person claiming to be Herodotus actually is.
-He is not an eyewitness of the events.
-No eyewitness is presented to the court.
-There is no physical evidence of what happened.
-There is no documented evidence of the exact scene of the event.
-There is not corpus delicti.
The sentence is unavoidable: there is no place for the prosecution of the case. The case is closed; please do not make lose the time of this court with nonsensical stuffs. [vigorous hammering].
Conclusion: Most of the facts we know as ancient history would not pass the test of legal evidence of a modern court. Either we ignore this criterion or we use it and send the Ancient History to hell.
If you want to compare the degree of evidence of the battle of Thermopylae and the death of Jesus, this is another subject. But, as I have shown now and before, the legal standard does not help at all because it would invalidate both of them. We should look for other criteria more in line with the methods of history used by historians.
The reason I am not going to go through hundreds pages of endless argument about what historians may, or may not, claim to be the evidence of the battle of Thermopylae is -
- firstly it is an obvious diversion to keep discussing an infinite number of other claimed events and individuals, such as Thermopylae, Crossing the Rubicon, Exile into Babylon, Pythagoras, Socrates, Confucius, Buddha, Plato, Alexander the Great …. etc.
- secondly, we are not talking about any of those events/people. We are talking about
Jesus. And the fact that there may be many other figures and events in ancient history which are very poorly supported, if supported at all, by any reliable evidence, does nothing at all to aid the case of Jesus. The fact that Thermopylae may be a fictional event with no reliable or credible evidence, is not any kind of evidence for Jesus!
So let’s stick to the point here, which is the existence of Jesus.
However - as far as the legal test is concerned, in respect of Thermopylae - if the evidence of that event is really as non-existent as that for Jesus, then as I said before, neither any historian or anyone else should believe that the probability is positive to say that it ever took place (or as Ehrman says, and as he says for
“every properly trained scholar on the planet”, the evidence makes it
“certain”).
You appear to be claiming that historians are right to continue to believe in Thermopylae, even though you say it is known only from such non-existent evidence as Jesus, i.e. where the evidence is -
1. Anonymous unavailable writers who were not witnesses to any of it.
2. Writing to say that other anonymous persons who were not witnesses, believed that other earlier people knew of earlier legend of other people who believed that there had once been people who had witnessed the events
3. But where what was believed to be witnessed was described on every page as continuously claiming physically impossible supernatural events that could not have happened.
4. Where the stories of the events could actually often be found to have been taken from a book of religious prophetic beliefs written many centuries earlier.
5. Where there is zero physical evidence of any such event ever happening at all.
If
that is all you have for Thermopylae, and if you are saying that nevertheless historians insist that IS evidence good enough to conclude that the battle really happened, then they are simply wrong - because that most certainly would NOT be evidence good enough to conclude that the event ever took place.
I think what you are actually saying about an event like Thermopylae, is (assuming you are right to say it is known only as matter of anonymous hearsay with nothing else at all support it’s quite fantastic and physically untrue claims), is that historians do no more than to merely say they believe it
MIGHT have really happened.
Fine - so nobody here is saying Jesus could never have existed as some sort of person. We have all said that a preacher like that MIGHT have existed. Though not with the characteristics claimed in the biblical writing. He MIGHT have existed. That was never the sceptic argument to say no preacher could ever have possibly existed.
The sceptic argument is only that the claimed evidence for a human Jesus is not good enough to believe that he probably did exist, i.e. more likely than not. NOT that he merely
might have existed …. But evidence good enough conclude, as people here have suggested e.g. “60-40”, i.e. more likely than not, that he really did exist.
And that even includes
dejudge's position by the way. Even he is only insisting that the biblical figure of Jesus is impossible and could never have existed. He has never said that no 1st century preacher named “Jesus” could ever have existed at all. Though he is adding, and quite rightly imho (and obviously so in fact), that the biblical Jesus is actually the only known “Jesus”.
OK, to summarise that - the point is that there is actually no evidence for any such positive
“more likely than not" belief in Jesus. In fact there is no reliable credible evidence of his existence at all. On which basis, as I have said many times in these threads, the best you should conclude is that he might have existed, but that there is actually no evidence for that existence, and on the contrary there is in fact absolutely loads of very definite and unarguable evidence to show why religious beliefs like this are very likely indeed to be only mythical.
And as far as the example of Thermopylae is concerned and that question legal precedent for what would be admissible evidence, and how that would make all of ancient history collapse - your claim is wrong, because historians are presumably NOT claiming that evidence as poor as that, in fact entirely non-existent evidence, is sufficient to conclude that Thermopylae was
more likely than not …. All they could conclude in the absence of any credible reliable evidence at all, and in the face of clear
“proof” that the once claimed
“evidence” has turned out to be repeatedly and manifestly untrue to the point of physical impossible absurdity, is that Thermopylae
MIGHT have happened … well, we have all said that Jesus MIGHT have existed, so ….
…. he MIGHT have existed, but -
1. There is actually no reliable credible evidence at all for his existence.
2. He could not possibly have existed as the figure described in the bible.
3. On that basis there is zero reliable evidence on which to conclude that he probably did exist (let alone as a matter of the
"certainty" expressed by bible scholars).