Nailed: Ten Christian Myths that show Jesus never existed

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What is your view on the James reference?

Stone

My guess is that it is a forgery in total.

ETA: But maybe the reference to Christ was the only addition and it referred to a different James. And maybe (but significantly less likely in my view) the passage is not significantly different from what Josephus originally wrote.

And when I said forgery I meant that to include the possibility of unintentional change as well, for instance it might have been a margin note that got incorporated into later texts without an attempt to deceive.
 
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What?? How come HJ was known as the Christ? HJ was not the Christ ...
Quite right. Well spotted. The Messiah is an unreal entity generated within the ideology of Judaism. Also, there is no God, by the way, so by your criterion he couldn't have been known as God either!
Nobody knew any character called Jesus the Christ who was worshiped as a God by Jews.
Right again! But you deserve little credit because it has been pointed out a million times that the Christ is not God and never has been God, but is a person anointed with the approval of God. Isaiah 45:1:
Yahweh says to his anointed, to Cyrus, whose right hand I have held, to subdue nations before him ...
In LXX the word "christ" is used here to describe Cyrus. Now, dejudge, did the Jews worship Cyrus as a god? Have Jews ever worshipped any human being as God? No. Have Jews ever attributed miraculous or magical powers to human beings? Yes, dejudge, they have. And some still do.
The veneration of rabbis said to have miracle powers has a long history in Judaism.
http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2754258/posts Did Jews do this in Jesus' day? They did. Look at the story of Honi the Circle Maker. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Honi_ha-M'agel Did they think any of these guys were God? No.

Here is what was going on.
During the 1st century BC, a variety of religious movements and splinter groups developed amongst the Jews in Judea. A number of individuals claimed to be miracle workers in the tradition of Elijah and Elisha, the ancient Jewish prophets.
Were Elijah and Elisha worshipped as gods. No, dejudge, they weren't. But the gospels explicitly associate Jesus with this tradition. Matthew 17:
1 Six days later, Jesus took Peter, James, and John, the brother of James, up on a high mountain by themselves. 2 While they watched, Jesus’ appearance was changed; his face became bright like the sun, and his clothes became white as light. 3 Then Moses and Elijah appeared to them, talking with Jesus. 4 Peter said to Jesus, “Lord, it is good that we are here. If you want, I will put up three tents here—one for you, one for Moses, and one for Elijah.” 5 While Peter was talking, a bright cloud covered them. A voice came from the cloud and said, “This is my Son, whom I love, and I am very pleased with him. Listen to him!”
Can you now see what, among other things, the Transfiguration was all about? God turning Jesus, not into God, but into an updated version of these prophets. Did the Transfiguration happen as described? No, dejudge, it didn't. Did Jesus and a couple of his chums climb up a hill and convince themselves that something really important had happened there? That spirits had visited them and that things looked dazzlingly bright? Very possibly: if they spent a few days in prayer and fasting up there they could have seen all sorts of things. As miracles go, it's most unimpressive.

Anyway, that'll do for now. Happy New Year!
 
... The embarrassment or difficulty criterion has been used by some non-confessional and radical historians to claim to Jesus as religious/political resistant against Roman Empire. In Spain José Montserrat has written Jesus, the armed prophet in the line of S.G.F. Brandon. I think it is irritating ('embarrassing') for confessional historians because discloses a different branch of early Christianity very far of their placid Jesus, but I find hard to attribute this view to some kind of "historical" Jesus. It is another brand of Christianity and no more.
No. I think it stands outside the domain of normative Christianity, and it has most certainly been embraced by some non-Christian writers. Paine argues it in Chap 3 of the Age of Reason.
The accusation which those priests brought against him was that of sedition and conspiracy against the Roman government, to which the Jews were then subject and tributary; and it is not improbable that the Roman government might have some secret apprehension of the effects of his doctrine as well as the Jewish priests; neither is it improbable that Jesus Christ had in contemplation the delivery of the Jewish nation from the bondage of the Romans. Between the two, however, this virtuous reformer and revolutionist lost his life.
It has been proposed also by two Jewish authors in recent times. Joel Carmichael in The Death of Jesus and Hyam Maccoby in Revolution in Judaea and other of his works. So even if it is another brand of Christianity (and I am doubtful that it may reasonably be described as such) it is surely not "no more" than that.
 
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No. I think it stands outside the domain of normative Christianity, and it has most certainly been embraced by some non-Christian writers. Paine argues it in Chap 3 of the Age of Reason. It has been proposed also by two Jewish authors in recent times. Joel Carmichael in The Death of Jesus and Hyam Maccoby in Revolution in Judaea and other of his works. So even if it is another brand of Christianity (and I am doubtful that it may reasonably be described as such) it is surely not "no more" than that.

Let's not forget Reza Aslan: http://www.amazon.com/Zealot-Life-Times-Jesus-Nazareth/dp/140006922X

And of course Robert Eisenman: http://www.roberteisenman.com/

Both big on the Zealot Jesus idea.
 
What?? How come HJ was known as the Christ? HJ was not the Christ.

Let's check if you can read that again:

Josephus identifies James's brother by citing the nickname "Christ" that was more familiar to most readers.

Josephus identifies James's brother by citing the nickname "Christ" that was more familiar to most readers.

Josephus identifies James's brother by citing the nickname "Christ" that was more familiar to most readers.

Josephus identifies James's brother by citing the nickname "Christ" that was more familiar to most readers.

Josephus identifies James's brother by citing the nickname "Christ" that was more familiar to most readers.

Josephus identifies James's brother by citing the nickname "Christ" that was more familiar to most readers.

Josephus identifies James's brother by citing the nickname "Christ" that was more familiar to most readers.

Josephus identifies James's brother by citing the nickname "Christ" that was more familiar to most readers.
 
Eight Bits, I'll respond in full later, but the spoiler was added so your full post was there, but zipped for brevity so as not to bloat the page with what had already been posted, since it was large.
I was not trying to change your post, sorry.
 
Not a huge problem, Jayson, but the forum quote function already includes a link to the whole post. I look forward to your reply to the rest, when time allows.
 
And yet you reject all specialists out of hand on the chief questions raised in this thread! Do you know how hypocritical you sound?
Stone



It sounds hypocritical to you, because you think these people are worthy scholars who must be correct. You are relying on them as authorities.

Which of these “specialists” do you claim are neutral historians rather than bible studies scholars or (worse) Christian theist writers and theologians?

What evidence do you think they are using apart from the wholly inadmissible NT bible? …


…. the bible is not admissible as reliable because -


1. It’s gospels are anonymously written, giving only hearsay, with no actual witness to Jesus ever produced or quoted.

2. Paul’s letters make clear that he never knew Jesus, and believed only according to “scripture” and “revelation”

3. Those gospels and letters are only known, at all, from anonymous copies written centuries later by unknown Christian worshipers themselves.



And just for the sake of others here who have said that we should not use the criteria established in legal cases to decide what is or is not credible as testimony fit to be placed before a jury -

- the reason that certain types of "evidence" (ie testimony) such as hearsay, are almost always ruled inadmissible in jury trials, is precisely because legal experts and judges have over the course of several centuries very carefully examined the issue of what can honestly and truly be offered before any jury as genuine “evidence” of anything.

So this is not just a matter of saying “oh well we are not in court here”. That sort of dismissive evasive remark is wholly irrelevant. The relevant fact here is that we should be extremely wary of accepting any of types of claimed “evidence” of anything, where those particular types of testimony have already been shown by the courts to be completely unacceptable for consideration of that which they claim … testimony like that is not fit to go before any jury, precisely because it is known to be extremely unreliable and not credible, and therefore known to be highly likely to deceive the jury into making seriously mistaken decisions.

But in the case of the gospels as “evidence” of Jesus - that testimony is not merely inadmissible as a result of hearsay, it is actually anonymous hearsay! Even the witness themselves cannot be found! And even worse than that (if you can imagine anything worse!), the testimony does not even come from the anonymous witness … it comes from a Christian copyist writing many centuries later … and where even that Christian copyist is also anonymous and cannot be found either!

No court in the world would ever allow a jury to hear a single word of testimony like that. Because it is wholly and completely unreliable to the degree of absurdity.

And finally - as for Jayson solemnly telling us (and I do appreciate his generally neutral and polite posts in all of this), that this is simply the way this branch of religious history works and we just have to accept that. Well … NO! No, we most certainly do not have to accept what such bible scholars say they believe from such inadmissible evidence as that. And if you tried to make a claim like that in court you would be overruled instantly - you could not stand in front of the judge and claim that although you were about to read some anonymous hearsay to the jury, that the court must hear it and accept it simply because this was the way your profession worked … simply because this is how you and your colleagues decide things … that is no defence at all to your use of wholly and utterly unacceptable unreliable testimony. And on the contrary, in fact it just shows how you wish to bypass all genuine honest consideration of what is acceptable as “evidence”/testimony, and impose your own rules of “special pleading” in the case of Jesus.
 
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Jesus called Christ could NOT be familiar to any one because the Christ had NOT come.

How convenient that HJers DENY that THEIR HJ was the Christ but all of a sudden he was the Christ in Josephus.

Well, they are in for a big SURPRISE. Jesus was known as John the Baptist or one of the prophets in the very Gospels.

In an earlier writing, Wars of the Jews 6.5.4 Josephus had ALREADY stated the Jews EXPECTED a Messianic ruler c 66-70 CE and that expectation is also confirmed by Tacitus and Suetonius.

In fact, Vespasian was ASSUMED to be the Predicted Messianic ruler.

And further, in the synoptic Gospels, the Populace did NOT call Jesus the Christ.

Jesus was called John the Baptist, Elijah or one of the Prophets--NOT CHRIST.


Mark 8
27 Jesus went out, along with His disciples, to the villages of Caesarea Philippi ; and on the way He questioned His disciples, saying to them, "Who do people say that I am ?" 28 They told Him, saying, "John the Baptist ; and others say Elijah ; but others, one of the prophets."

The HJ argument has collapsed.

After now finding out that James in Josephus was NOT the brother of Jesus they are now trying to claim Jesus called Christ in Josephus was known as the Christ by Jews.

It is a completely fallacy.

They never remembered that Jesus was known as John the Baptist or one of the prophets in the very stories of Jesus in the NT.
 
Why don't you answer the question ?

Because I asked my question first.

Because I asked my question first.

Because I asked my question first.

Because I asked my question first.

Because I asked my question first.

Because I asked my question first.

Because I asked my question first.

Because I asked my question first.

Stone
 
It sounds hypocritical to you, because you think these people are worthy scholars who must be correct. You are relying on them as authorities.

Which of these “specialists” do you claim are neutral historians rather than bible studies scholars or (worse) Christian theist writers and theologians?

What evidence do you think they are using apart from the wholly inadmissible NT bible? …


…. the bible is not admissible as reliable because -


1. It’s gospels are anonymously written, giving only hearsay, with no actual witness to Jesus ever produced or quoted.

2. Paul’s letters make clear that he never knew Jesus, and believed only according to “scripture” and “revelation”

3. Those gospels and letters are only known, at all, from anonymous copies written centuries later by unknown Christian worshipers themselves.



And just for the sake of others here who have said that we should not use the criteria established in legal cases to decide what is or is not credible as testimony fit to be placed before a jury -

- the reason that certain types of "evidence" (ie testimony) such as hearsay, are almost always ruled inadmissible in jury trials, is precisely because legal experts and judges have over the course of several centuries very carefully examined the issue of what can honestly and truly be offered before any jury as genuine “evidence” of anything.

So this is not just a matter of saying “oh well we are not in court here”. That sort of dismissive evasive remark is wholly irrelevant. The relevant fact here is that we should be extremely wary of accepting any of types of claimed “evidence” of anything, where those particular types of testimony have already been shown by the courts to be completely unacceptable for consideration of that which they claim … testimony like that is not fit to go before any jury, precisely because it is known to be extremely unreliable and not credible, and therefore known to be highly likely to deceive the jury into making seriously mistaken decisions.

But in the case of the gospels as “evidence” of Jesus - that testimony is not merely inadmissible as a result of hearsay, it is actually anonymous hearsay! Even the witness themselves cannot be found! And even worse than that (if you can imagine anything worse!), the testimony does not even come from the anonymous witness … it comes from a Christian copyist writing many centuries later … and where even that Christian copyist is also anonymous and cannot be found either!

No court in the world would ever allow a jury to hear a single word of testimony like that. Because it is wholly and completely unreliable to the degree of absurdity.

And finally - as for Jayson solemnly telling us (and I do appreciate his generally neutral and polite posts in all of this), that this is simply the way this branch of religious history works and we just have to accept that. Well … NO! No, we most certainly do not have to accept what such bible scholars say they believe from such inadmissible evidence as that. And if you tried to make a claim like that in court you would be overruled instantly - you could not stand in front of the judge and claim that although you were about to read some anonymous hearsay to the jury, that the court must hear it and accept it simply because this was the way your profession worked … simply because this is how you and your colleagues decide things … that is no defence at all to your use of wholly and utterly unacceptable unreliable testimony. And on the contrary, in fact it just shows how you wish to bypass all genuine honest consideration of what is acceptable as “evidence”/testimony, and impose your own rules of “special pleading” in the case of Jesus.

At least from what I understand, the Bible is not thrown out at all according to Carrier and Baye's Theorem. Its realistically the only data that we have.

At least it seems to be a much more sound position to take on the historicity of Jesus.
 
It sounds hypocritical to you, because you think these people are worthy scholars who must be correct. You are relying on them as authorities.

Although I understand your objection to appeal to authority, what's your take on relevant authority ? I mean, if you can't wrap your head around an explanation for Quantum Mechanics, and I tell you to trust that physicists know what they're doing despite your incredulity, is it reasonable to dismiss that as a fallacious appeal ?
 
Jesus called Christ could NOT be familiar to any one because the Christ had NOT come.

How convenient that HJers DENY that THEIR HJ was the Christ but all of a sudden he was the Christ in Josephus.

Would you mind stepping off of your soapbox for a while ? We're having a serious discussion, here.
 
Because I asked my question first.

You're so adorable when you're being nice, Stone. Especially when I can't find your "first" question, and Dave's question was so reasonable. I'll know better than to engage with you in discussion, even when I agree with you, in the future.
 
In an earlier writing, Wars of the Jews 6.5.4 Josephus had ALREADY stated the Jews EXPECTED a Messianic ruler c 66-70 CE and that expectation is also confirmed by Tacitus and Suetonius.

Dejudge, please provide the source passages indicating that Josephus, Tacitus and Suetonius stated that 1st Century apocalyptic Jews had been expecting the messiah to arrive no sooner than 66 CE.
 
My guess is that it is a forgery in total.

ETA: But maybe the reference to Christ was the only addition and it referred to a different James. And maybe (but significantly less likely in my view) the passage is not significantly different from what Josephus originally wrote.

And when I said forgery I meant that to include the possibility of unintentional change as well, for instance it might have been a margin note that got incorporated into later texts without an attempt to deceive.

And you honestly don't see that that is an assessment guided solely by ideological bias, and by nothing remotely paleographic, bibliographic, or textual?

Look at what we have with the TF. There, we have something textual. We even have at least one contemporary citation of Josephus that makes it explicit that Josephus never accepted Jesus as the Christ at all. And yet, the TF in the complete Ants. texts has Josephus call Jesus the Christ with no riders! At the same time, we have not one but two quoted versions of the TF that precede our earliest mss. of the complete work where Josephus plainly reports that Jesus was _called_ the Christ instead!

From this textual history, it is possible to conclude what more probably happened to the text: To begin with, it is too much of a coincidence to suppose that two different corruptions happened at the same juncture. It is not impossible that there were two, of course, but it is more probable that there was only one. Otherwise, we're dealing in a series of coincidences. Consequently, the one corruption, going by the non-apologetic tone of the two TF citations preceding our extant mss., more probably involved the tone only of the Jesus description rather than the whole Jesus description as well. The latter is just too coincidental to be likely, and my personal assessment of the tone as the sole datum here that was corrupted comes from one who has never credited Jesus as having any individual "divinity" at all.

I think the greater probability that there was one corruption, and that this involved the tone of the TF and not its substance, makes it more likely that the TF shows a passage that was corrupted but not inserted wholesale.

With Ants. 20, we have nothing like this. All sources for it are identical, the textual history is not complicated in any way, and the tone of the reference is in perfect keeping with Josephus's reportorial voice.

Practically everything in ancient historiography deals in degrees of probability and not in certainty. The TF and Ants. 20 are no exceptions. With the textual patterns that emerge here, it is more likely that the TF was corrupted but not interpolated and that the Ants. 20 ref. has survived as Josephus wrote it. More likely but not certain. That's how professionals do this.

Stone
 
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In fact, Vespasian was ASSUMED to be the Predicted Messianic ruler.

Josephus simply said that to avoid being executed when he was captured. Basically, he got down on his knees and really licked some boot.

You're not asserting that the apocalyptic Jews all recognized a pagan Roman emperor as their messiah, are you?
 
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:)


And what is the evidence when the HJ-existed-for-sure experts get around to describing it instead of trying to claim it exists because all reputable scholars agree it does?

It is damn slim. There are the writings of Paul believed to be genuine, but they exist completely without external corroboration and the possibilities that Paul lied, Paul was fooled, Paul's writings were forged and that Paul didn't exist can't be disproved.


Dave -

It’s far worse than that.

For a start, we don’t know what Paul ever originally wrote about his belief in Jesus, because we have precisely nothing ever written by him.

What we have are “copies” written (apparently) by the Christian faithful themselves at least (probably) 150+ years after Paul had died.

It does not take more than a few words added, deleted or altered in a few places to change completely what we now think might have been Paul’s meaning in sentences which are often ambiguous anyway.

For example, the one thing that most scholars take to be significant evidence of Jesus are the words “the Lords brother”. But those words occur at the very end of one short sentence, which was otherwise a completed sentence without those words. Ie, the sentence is “other apostles saw I none…” and then the extra words are “ …. save James, the Lords brother”.

It should be obvious that that those few final explanatory words may have been added by later scribes who had come think Paul would have met an apostle named James who was by that later time of the copyists, thought to be “the Lords brother”.

In which respect - iirc, nowhere else in all of Paul’s writing does he ever again say that James was the Lords brother. And also, that same “James” was supposed to be the person who wrote the epistles of “James”, who says there all sorts of things, but never once claimed to be the brother of Jesus.

And finally, there are several different people named “James” in the bible, and the biblical authors seem in various places to mix them up, so that it appears they did not always know themselves which “James” they were talking about.

That is not meant as proof to show that Paul could not possibly have really meant that “James” was the actual family brother of Jesus. But it does mean that we should exercise extreme caution before accepting something like that at face value (and we could add the fact that in all of Paul’s writing he frequently uses the terms “brother”, “brothers” and “brethren”, but far more often to mean brothers in belief, and not actual family members).

All of which is apart from the fact that it’s very clear indeed from all of Paul’s letters that he never met anyone called Jesus, and that he himself repeatedly stresses that he has no information at all about Jesus from any human man. But instead that he has all his information from what he called “scripture” and by “revelation”, in other words, from his scriptural OT beliefs. And certainly, in none of Paul’s letters does he ever quote any information about Jesus saying it came from any eye-witness (such as “James”) who had ever told him any such details about any earthly existence of Jesus.

So Paul is most definitely talking about his theological beliefs. And certainly not about anything he personally either knew of Jesus, or that he ever had as any eye-witness or any brotherly family details of Jesus. There is nothing remotely like that in anything Paul says.



After Paul there are the Gospels. John is usually discounted entirely because of its late date and contradictions with the other three Gospels. And Matthew and Luke seem to be completely dependent on Mark for the bulk of their story except when they make up stories like the birth narrative and the trial narrative. If there is truthful information in Matthew and Luke beyond what is in Mark, how could one determine what that is? One might make some guesses about plausibility and criteria of embarrassment but does any of that lead to evidence strong enough to support a conclusion that it is extremely likely that an HJ existed. I don't think so.

And after the Gospels there are the other NT books. Is there anything probative in them with regard to the existence of an HJ. I haven't seen those arguments if they exist. Although James is sometimes put forth as an example of a book that may have been derived from a Jesus oriented Palestinian sect. Maybe, the evidence seems speculative to me.

And after the other NT books there are the alleged non-biblical corroborations of the NT. When one cuts out the crap here there are only two that are possibilities: Josephus and Tacitus. These sources have been argued endlessly. Neither individual could have been a witness to an HJ. Both at best might be a witness to Christians at a fairly early date. There is great dispute about the authenticity of the Josephus writings and my guess is that the arguments that dispute authenticity are correct. But regardless of my guess about this it is clear there are significant reasons to doubt the authenticity of Josephus on the HJ and as such Joshephus' alleged writings about the HJ don't contribute much support to a case that it is extremely likely that an HJ existed.



None of those gospels are admissible as credibly reliable evidence anyway, for all the reasons I set out earlier in respect of legal cases and the criteria so carefully and painstakingly refined over centuries of legal evaluation of what can be offered before a jury as reliable genuine “evidence” of anything ( “evidence” really means testimony offered for consideration as “evidence”) vs. what is definitely not admissible to be put before any jury, on the grounds that it is too unreliable to be taken in consideration without serious risk of misleading the jury into making entirely wrong decisions.

And that almost always rules out hearsay evidence. And it absolutely always rules out hearsay evidence claimed to come from anonymous witnesses who cannot ever be produced before the court at all. And that is most definitely the case with all four canonical gospels - they are all hearsay from anonymous writers (in fact they are known only from much later Christian copies from yet more anonymous copyists!).

Of course, those who believe a HJ was likely, will often say that we are not in a court and that such legal rules do not apply. Well they most certainly should apply. Because that is the very reason they were brought into existence long ago in all democratic western courts … precisely to avoid the jurors being deceived by testimony that might sound effective or persuasive, but which is actually coming as uncorroborated hearsay stories from entirely anonymous sources who cannot provide any of the original claimed witnesses to support anything they say.

That sort of “evidence” is no good here for exactly the same reasons that it’s not allowed in a court, ie because it is not reliable or credible as “evidence” at all, and is actually unfit even to be considered by the jury.

IOW - that is not merely a case of thinking that perhaps a jury should hear that sort of testimony in case there is at least something in it that just might be true (leaving out all the obviously untrue miracle claims) on the basis that certain elements were at least physically possible (someone could have gone to Jerusalem, and someone could have met someone named Peter, they could have had bread and wine for supper). But on the contrary, that sort of testimony/”evidence” is ruled out of consideration entirely (in any part) by the jury, precisely to avoid that sort of dishonest attempt to suggest that the jury might like consider inadmissible evidence just in case they wish to believe some part of it ... you could not possibly have a barrister telling the judge that he should allow fundamentally inadmissible evidence like that, because that barrister would like to try attempting to persuade the jury that they might like to believe some parts of it ... that would be instantly overruled by the judge, because that is a blatant attempt to bypass the rules of admissible evidence and dishonestly influence the jury ... and that is exactly what is happening here in the HJ case when people say that we should remove all the miracles, but still consider the inadmissible anonymous copyist testimony to see if what is left can be used to persuade any gullible "juror" to think it is reliable in any measure at all.
 
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You're so adorable when you're being nice, Stone. Especially when I can't find your "first" question, and Dave's question was so reasonable. I'll know better than to engage with you in discussion, even when I agree with you, in the future.

I was actually offering an homage to your post to DeJudge in my response. Sorry you didn't take it that way.

Anyway, my first question was here --

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?p=9731851#post9731851

-- although I concede that I did not make it perfectly clear that it was intended as a question.

Stone
 
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