I was going from the dating of John to ~90 CE.
But much larger point is that, though by the Council of Nicaea the orthodox Church had adopted some of the Johannine theology that dejudge is so obsessed with, the Nicene adoption says almost nothing about what Christians at the end of the 1st century believed about Jesus. In fact, each of the canonical Gospels paints theologically very different picture of Jesus, so dejudge's claim that the prologue in John somehow represents a widely held belief in the incorporeality of the earthly Jesus is patently absurd.