Bill Williams
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Nov 10, 2011
- Messages
- 15,713
Dave - when we get together in Orange County on my next visit we can discuss this.This seems to be coming down to a mostly semantic issue. The term, Satanic rite, can have a fairly broad definition or it can be have a literal narrow definition. If the broad definition is assumed then it would apply to a range of occult, horror related rite like activities. Arguably some of the motives Mignini suggested fit into this broad definition of Satanic rites such as the Manga comic book references and the ambiguous references to Halloween.
If the term, Satanic rite, is interpreted narrowly then it refers to a rite practiced by groups that worship Satan. Although, Mignini proposed a variety of motive theories I don't think there is any evidence that he proposed that the murders involved Satan worship or rites associated with Satan cults.
I think to sustain a claim that Mignini ever intended to ascribe a Satanic rite as his motive theory one would need to either find a direct quote by him using the term or one would need to find references that come much closer to the narrow definition of Satanic rite that seem to be available. As such it looks to me like Grinder is correct here.
Machiavell's claims go a bit beyond the semantic issue if I understand him correctly. He proposes that Mignini was not involved in the early lurid descriptions of the crime and that Mignini's silence about the early lurid theories of the crime are not an accurate indicator of what Mignini was actually saying about the crime. Machiavelli also proposes that the use of the Halloween in Mignini's court statement had to do with the timing of the crime and didn't have anything to do with what Mignini was proposing as to the nature of the crime.
I doubt that Machiavelli is correct here, but is it possible to be sure? My assumption that the early sensationalistic media coverage of this crime was orchestrated by Mignini, but is this knowable or even correct? It might be, but it is definitely not known to be true by me.
I think it is more than semantics. I think that the reason why, in 2008, Mignini was not forceful in debunking then, what is now considered at best "a semantic issue", is that he simply allowed (then) the Satanic rite thing to play its course in the media. He most certainly did not complain back then.... it was doing it's work against Amanda Knox.
You see, my question is - why is Mignini now complaining about this in Oct 2013?
It's because the Satanic rite theory is now doing the opposite - it is casting Mr. Mignini in disrepute, now that the urge to sluttify this case has passed.
No one seems to want to answer the question - why is Mignini now complaining about the use of the Satanic Rite theory, when he didn't in 2008?
The answer to that is more interesting....