You mean besides the obvious: missing functional, erogenic part(s) of the penis?You imply a distinction where none exists.
You mean besides the obvious: missing functional, erogenic part(s) of the penis?You imply a distinction where none exists.
You mean besides the obvious: missing functional, erogenic part(s) of the penis?
Jews are not guilty of murderous acts, but your argument is still unsound. People have believed that they have been commanded by God to kill witches, or indeed to kill Jews. So belief that an act is in response to a divine command is not, and ought not to be - in and of itself - a reason why the act should be permitted by law.
The only justification should be (if this is indeed the case) that infant male circumcision does so little harm that it is not expedient that the law should take notice of it.
Yes really. It's a simple statement of objective fact. Their penises are missing functional and erogenic part(s) because they have been removed. Which ones and how much depends on what has been removed in the operation and may somewhat vary individually.Really? Because the circumcised men I know don't actually seem to be "missing" much of anything.
You imply a distinction where none exists.
Ridiculous. You were missing out on something - something identifiable, objective and measurable. There was an objective standard by which your vision could be measured. You could have been fitted with a pair of binoculars, but since that is not normal human vision the doctor didn't do that. You could have been fitted with infrared optics. They didn't do that, either.
I know of no objective scale for pleasure. Hospitals have found that the best measure of pain, however, is a subjective scale where the patient rates his own pain. Most all hospitals now have a smiley face, simple 1-10 system. Going by a subjective scale, there is no evidence that men circumcised at birth experience less pleasure. There is, however, evidence that men circumcised in their teen and adult years do.
We might speculate that men who derive less pleasure from sex will have less sex, experience more sexual dysfunction and, possibly, have fewer children. However, there is no evidence that Jewish men are experiencing less fulfilling or fruitful sex lives.
No, I'm asking how you'd know if there was a distinction when you've effectively never had a foreskin.
You may well be right, there may be no difference - or at least not one sufficient to be noticeable, but how would you know when you've nothing to compare it to?
... which will be too late to do a circumcision as quickly, with as little pain, with as low a likelihood for complications and with no loss of sexual function or feeling.
I know of no objective scale for pleasure.
Really? Because the circumcised men I know don't actually seem to be "missing" much of anything.
There is, however, an objective scale for sensation. This study shows that a penis with a foreskin is more sensitive than one without.
Except, of course, a particularly sensitive part of their penis.
Victims of abuse will often deny they are victims.
Is it just me, or are others getting a whiff of sour grapes in this thread?
That would be affirming the consequent. The point is not that those who say they were not abused must have been so.So, me saying I was not abused is now evidence of abuse. If I said I was abused, would that be evidence that I wasn't? Or have you just made a decision about the matter and now made up a rule that results in your preconception?
So, me saying I was not abused is now evidence of abuse. If I said I was abused, would that be evidence that I wasn't? Or have you just made a decision about the matter and now made up a rule that results in your preconception?