phiwum
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Aug 25, 2010
- Messages
- 13,590
How do we know that the axioms of logic are more certain?
We we deduce (and observe) that logic "works", or presuppose it?
It is closer to an analytic truth. If, for instance, the connective "&" means anything like what we take conjunction to mean, it simply must be the case that "(P & Q) implies P".
It is not merely probable that this is the case, just as it's not merely probable that a triangle has three interior angles. The logical axioms are not some sort of observations of regularities that have been true up 'til now, but rather they specify how we use the connectives.
To try to view it your way is to suppose that we somehow were using "and" and noticed that whenever (P & Q) was true, P happened to also be true. Thus, we concluded that this was probably true in every case, and our confidence grew with each new confirmational observation. But even now, we would have to admit that there's a non-zero probability that "(P & Q) implies P" is false.
On my reading, that's simply nonsensical. To entertain a possibility that (P & Q) is true while P is false is simply to misunderstand what & (and implies) means.
What do you think is the probability that a closed, rectilinear three-angled figure (i.e., a triangle) has more than three angles? Similarly, what is the probability that P & Q is true, but P is false? If the answer to either of these is 0, then you must admit that our confidence in these facts is not due to experience.