I have sort of followed this. There is a book, Historia Augusta, that contains mini biographies of several Roman emperors. Some of the biographies in it are obviously bogus and some historians think the whole thing was just made up by a single individual. This conclusion is largely based on computer analysis of the writing which is not completely accepted by some other scholars. [This is not surprising to me, my sense of it is that this kind of computer analysis of writing is never definitive].
In the book there is a single sentence that suggests there may have been a connection between the origins of Christianity and Serapis, an Egyptian/Greek God that seems to have been invented during the reign of the Ptolemy's.
Maximara tends to think the reference might be allude to a true fact and Pakeha is skeptical. Wrapped up in all this is this Chrestus/Christ confusion thing that pops up every now and then.
So, Pakeha,
1. Did I roughly get the above correct?
2. Now, after your research of this, what are your conclusions?
3. There seems to be very little evidence of this alleged connection between Serapis and Jesus. Is that all there is?
1) Yes
2) Roman officials didn't really pay that much attention to the regional religions unless they caused problems.
3) It is not so much a connection between Serapis and Jesus but how close the terms used to describe them and their followers are. Sort of like Chief and Chef in modern English; one command a tribe the other cooks food. Other then both word originally come from French (at different times) there is no relationship between the two.
However, it does raise issues with the "evidence"
Take Suetonius who is often presented as evidence of Jesus.
Iudaeos impulsore Chresto assidue tumultuantis Roma expulit. (Claudius 25)
"Since the Jews constantly make disturbances at the instigation of Chrestus, he (Claudius) expelled them from Rome."
Now go back to the Tour Egypt site:
"In fact, it appears that some followers of Serapis were eventually expelled from Rome when, in 19 AD, Tiberius also expelled the Jews."
A little research produced Boatwright, Mary T. (2012) Peoples of the Roman World Cambridge University Press confirming that "Tiberius expelled Egyptian and Jewish worshipers from Rome (See Chapter 5)"
So if there were followers of Serapis/Chrestus around in 19 CE then obviously followers of Chrestus can NOT be followers of Jesus.
William L. Lane has pointed out that at the time Suetonius lived (c69 – c122) the distinction between spelling and pronunciation was negligible. (William L. Lane in Judaism and Christianity in First-Century Rome edited by Karl Paul Donfried and Peter Richardson (1998) ISBN 0802842658 pp. 204-206)
But that door swings both ways. Does Nero 16 really refer to Christians or to Chrestians? Suetonius doesn't give enough details to tell.
The same problem is true of Pliny the Younger.
Tacitus we now know wrote of Chrestianos and a scribe altered the word to Christianos. And Tacitus talks of their founder being named Chrestus not Christus. So is Tacitus talking of followers of Jesus or some splinter faction of Serapis whose founder was executed during the rule of Pontius Pilate?