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How can Sweden fairly prosecute Assange when they don't prosecute GW Bush?

In one of the many posts that have been moved to AAH I provided a link to an academic study which assessed the degree of independence in three European countries, Germany, Italy and Sweden.

http://www.ucl.ac.uk/constitution-u...ependence/judicial-independence-in-europe.pdf

In the posts consigned to AAH, Watanabe rejected this as evidence that the Swedish judicial system is politically independent on the grounds that there are academic studies that show that homoeopathy is effective.

Personally I think that the paper is informative.
 
Your claim: The judiciary power is independent
You are asking me to prove the negative: the judiciary power is not independent
But you cant prove a negative, as you say.

In this case of course you can.

Just provide examples where the Swedish criminal justice system has yielded to political pressure. Ideally provide examples where the Swedish justice system has yielded to political pressure from a foreign power.
 
Your claim: The judiciary power is independent
You are asking me to prove the negative: the judiciary power is not independent
But you cant prove a negative, as you say.

No we are asking you to show how in Sweden the political system effects the judiciary.

You make the claim the burden will always be yours, sophistry shall avail you not.

I asked specifically of political influence in a citizen alleging sexual assault.
 
Watanabe said:
Illogical request, because you cannot generally prove negative, because it would require to prove everything is NOT controlled, which is not possible. That's why generally claimant of positive statement must prove it because it requires only one instance to be proven. (Here, it would be a case similar to the one under discussion that was influenced by politicians - like critic of government being silenced or something)

Illustrative example:
Claim: There is pink elephant. (just one at any location needed)
Negative claim: There is no pink elephant. (Requires to show that no pink elephant exists anywhere on planet.)

Your claim: The judiciary power is independent
You are asking me to prove the negative: the judiciary power is not independent
But you cant prove a negative, as you say.

Nice word play, but ineffective. Not even inversion will save you.

Provide evidence that Swedish courts are controlled by politics. That they are not independent!
 
In this case of course you can.

Just provide examples where the Swedish criminal justice system has yielded to political pressure. Ideally provide examples where the Swedish justice system has yielded to political pressure from a foreign power.

Just provide examples where the Swedish criminal justice system has not yielded to political pressure. Ideally provide examples where the Swedish justice system has not yielded to political pressure from a foreign power.
 
In one of the many posts that have been moved to AAH I provided a link to an academic study which assessed the degree of independence in three European countries, Germany, Italy and Sweden.

http://www.ucl.ac.uk/constitution-u...ependence/judicial-independence-in-europe.pdf

In the posts consigned to AAH, Watanabe rejected this as evidence that the Swedish judicial system is politically independent on the grounds that there are academic studies that show that homoeopathy is effective.

Personally I think that the paper is informative.

A paper is not evidence of nothing

I can provide papers that homeopathy works
 
Why mine is inversion while yours isnt?

You take your claim and make negative of it, hoping that it will fall into "cannot prove negative" category. That is wrong.

You have seen word "generally" in my post, haven't you? Your attempt at rewriting claim to suit your evasion was exact reason, why I included it.

You made inversion of both claims, failing to realize that categorization will get inverted too and thus your claim is once again in category "evidence for existence".

Just because you create "not independent", doesn't mean you are suddenly off hook for evidence.

Where is your evidence that courts are under control of politicians.
 
Since Sweden did not go much after GWB despite having strong relations with the US

Because there was nothing to go after GWB for. There isn't even good cause to call him a "bad man". I've explained this before.

then there is the legitimate suspect that they are not interested in going after Assange for the sex abuse (alleged) either

They won't prosecute a real crime because in the past they didn't even try to bring charges for imaginary crimes?
 
Any of them leaked thousands of secret cables?

No, the Birthers deny the ability of the sitting president to assume that role.

Most government critics don't end up being prosecuted because of their criticism in the developed democracies.
 
Because there was nothing to go after GWB for. There isn't even good cause to call him a "bad man". I've explained this before.

There is no point to discuss with you as you do not consider immoral a war that caused the death of 200000+ people.

No, the Birthers deny the ability of the sitting president to assume that role.

Do they create any issues in this sense to the President?

Most government critics don't end up being prosecuted because of their criticism in the developed democracies.

Most of them.
(unless they release embarassing cables?)
 
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You take your claim and make negative of it, hoping that it will fall into "cannot prove negative" category. That is wrong.

You have seen word "generally" in my post, haven't you? Your attempt at rewriting claim to suit your evasion was exact reason, why I included it.

You made inversion of both claims, failing to realize that categorization will get inverted too and thus your claim is once again in category "evidence for existence".

Just because you create "not independent", doesn't mean you are suddenly off hook for evidence.

Where is your evidence that courts are under control of politicians.

You take your claim and make negative of it, hoping that it will fall into "cannot prove negative" category. That is wrong.

You have seen word "generally" in my post, haven't you? Your attempt at rewriting claim to suit your evasion was exact reason, why I included it.

You made inversion of both claims, failing to realize that categorization will get inverted too and thus your claim is once again in category "evidence for existence".

Just because you create "not dependent", doesn't mean you are suddenly off hook for evidence.

Where is your evidence that courts are independent politicians.
 

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